How is one to know, then, which individuals hold the actual truth?
Ultimately, you can’t. You’re human, and thus fallible in your interpretations. But the Roman Catholic situation is no better, for in the end it comes down to you interpreting scripture, the ECFs, and so on to believe the RCC has the actual truth.
In short, among the group of believers who claim to have the truth, treat the RCC as one more individual in that group. It too claims to have the truth, revealed by the holy spirit…but how can you know it’s correct in its assertion? You have to decide for yourself, which means that you’re interpreting the evidence to come to whatever conclusion you come to – thus, since you’re human, you could be wrong.
It’s unsettling, yes, but it’s really not much different. The only difference I could really bring up is that I’ve got personal experience of revelation from the holy spirit, and I’ve seen (minor) miracles. I also have personal experience of me rejecting the teaching of the holy spirit, because I was too prideful. I’m sure I still reject it to some degree, though I hope it’s to a much lesser extent than before, because I believe myself to be more open to it.
Oh, I’ve learned that from the Master…

The question was my answer. I’m trying to lead you into the truth.
Your question wasn’t an answer. You presupposed that Paul going to Jerusalem was the same as a teaching that “doctrinal unity is important”. But that’s not what the Council of Jerusalem was about – it was about unity of belief…where individuals were in disagreement with one another, not over doctrine or practice, but over the belief itself. That doctrine and practice were involved was of minor concern. The main contention was the belief that extra things were required for salvation, a point which Paul was clearly not happy with. It’s about the belief and the disunity of belief, not about the doctrines that could be said to have been established because of it.
In any case, as the instance you provided was not applicable, I’ll ask again – where does scripture (or a similarly antique writing) say that doctrinal unity is, in and of itself, important? Where does it say “hold fast to the traditions I’ve taught
and make sure you have an established doctrine, even if your beliefs aren’t the same”? As I recall, the entire focus of the NT is on belief, not doctrine.
Was Jesus intending that we should let people hit us twice in a row? That we should give up possessions above and beyond what is asked of us? Are these specific rules he was trying to institute for us? Not at all – instead, he was giving
examples of the underlying principle of belief/morality – showing compassion to one another. This was the importance, not the actions themselves.
He waited three years because he failed to reach a doctrinal consensus among the Galatians. He needed a higher authority.
Honestly, I’d have to study this a bit more intensely to be certain, but I’m reasonably sure this is incorrect.
Sorry. That is not how I read the events. Paul went to them, presented his case, there was a ruling, then a council called. After Peter and James spoke, the matter was settled. Paul had nothing to do with the decision making processess. He only represented one side. Peter, James, and the rest of the apostles were the judges.
Representing one side makes you part of the decision making process. A collective of apostles and other leaders gathered together, and spoke as they believed was in-line with the will of God. Luke recorded that
many had spoken before Peter did. I find it very unreasonable to assume that Paul had no say in what was going on.
No. Paul was sent out by the elders in Antioch.
You’re speaking of the issue that led to the “Council of Jerusalem”. I was speaking of his initial 3 year tour of ministry, immediately following his conversion – he went out for 3 years, without going to Jerusalem, even though he would have well known of any position of authority they held. If he later went to Jerusalem for authorization of his teaching, he was a fool to not have gone when he first converted.
That was a stirring reply. Unfortunately, while all answers are replies, not all replies are answers. You did not answer the question that I asked.
I’d say you did summarize the situation fairly well yourself: “trust no man”. Which leads to being a de facto master of Divine Revelation, be it as solascripturaist or listener to the Holy Spirit.
Actually, I think it would be more accurate to phrase it as “trust only God, and be willing and open to hear what he has to say”.
You’re right – it does make me the one who ultimately decides what God has said to me (at least, as far as I am personally concerned). This can, and sometimes does, lead to self-deception. However, as I’ve said, this is no different than the Roman Catholic principle – in the end, you ultimately decide what the RCC means when it speaks of invincible ignorance, for example. You choose how to interpret the words and teachings given, and thus you are capable of the same self-deception as I am. Where’s the difference?
The only way the Roman Catholic model has a benefit over the Protestant one is if Christ actually did institute the RCC.
But if he did, that leads me back to the question of sufficiency – was the faith and practice of the apostles sufficient? And if so, why should it not be the same for me?
That is essentially disunity-making, so as acknowledging the presence of a superior informant given us to serve and preserve the word of God, is a unity-making principle.
Actually, you’re doing as much self-interpretation as I am – you interpret the words of the RCC to mean something which disagrees with other interpretations I’ve heard. Now – how do I know which of you is right on a given issue? If I write a letter to the pope, I likely won’t receive a response from him. If I write a letter to 5 different bishops or priests, I’ll bet I’ll get at least 2 different responses.
In terms of practice and visible earthly things, you’re right, the RCC is a unifying principle. But in terms of belief and faith, the RCC is no more united than Protestantism as a whole is, and possibly less united than individual Protestant denominations are. So, we’re back to the question of why doctrinal unity is important if it doesn’t include with it a spiritual unity.
We got the NT through a (body of) men who would not understand it.
What makes you say this? Part of the NT was written by some of the closest followers of Christ. The rest was written within a couple of generations. As for canonization – are you saying that they had to understand perfectly the scriptures in order to canonize them?
Those guys, who were collecting, approving the books we would know as NT, were (eg) preaching and practiging episcopacy.
As stated – the NT canon was in existence (mostly) by the mid second century. This assemblage was not the responsibility of a council of men, but of the church at large, with a good deal of help from the holy spirit, I believe.
So they got it perfectly right with the Bible ( we know by ourselves the 27 books are the right ones)…
When have I said anything of the kind? I said I believe the 27 books of the NT are indeed divinely inspired (though I have personal reservations about II Peter, James and one or two others which I have yet to fully study). I never said I believe that they are the only works of divine inspiration.
…but we also know their doctrines and practices were unbiblical, because the Bible we got through them clearly shows that.
I assume you’re speaking of the supposedly Roman Catholic council who canonized the NT. No doubt these men were imperfect, and thus not in line with the teachings of scripture on a few issues. However, I think what you’re trying to get at is the false claim that the RCC was fully existent back then, teaching all the same things it does now. But, if you’d like to clarify what practices you’re talking about that I supposedly think are unbiblical, along with proof that these men followed such teachings, feel free.
Such was the choice of the Holy Spirit.
You accept, without question, that for over two centuries all of Christianity was persecuted, with a great many men being martyred. You also accept, without question, that Noah was a righteous man, and yet we see he wasn’t perfect in scripture. You accept that the twelve were Christ’s closest followers, and yet they were all human, and all made mistakes.
What’s so hard to believe about God using imperfect people, with imperfect faiths and imperfect practices to do something amazing? You claim, today, that God uses imperfect people to purvey perfect truth on a regular basis. It seems that the canonization of scripture would be a far easier thing to accomplish for the holy spirit.
But why did they not understand correctly what through them was to become the NT, if Scripture is perspicuous ?
What is it that you’re saying I’m saying they didn’t understand? Also, why is it you expect that men who do works of God should be infallible and perfect in understanding?
Well, it is perspicuous, it is formally sufficient, but you need the right disposition to interpret it correctly.
Right.
Those early bishops and martyrs of the faith, those spiritual selected grandchildren of the Apostles had not enough of the proper disposition. Differently from anyone proposing today this vision.
Uh – you’ve lost me. My premise is that we should follow the faith of the apostles, and now you’re saying I think they didn’t have proper understanding of scripture?
I think you’re still too closely associating the apostles with the modern practices of the RCC, and thus assuming that when I discredit the one, I also do the same to the other.