Whoever said filioque was promoted to battle that heresy?
The apologists of the Vatican: they say the Catholics in Visigoth Spain needed it, when said Arians were prostrate before the Catholic Church.
St. John Damascene, in his compilation of orthodox Catholic teaching, actually alludes to the reason that filioque was assumed in the West - there were certain Arians who denied the consubstantiality of the Son and the Spirit. If you’re interested, let me know and I’ll find you the exact quote.
This one?
Rather He [the Father] is Himself the beginning and cause of the existence of all things in a definite and natural manner. But the Son is derived from the Father after the manner of generation, and the Holy Spirit likewise is derived from the Father, yet not after the manner of generation, but after that of procession. And we have learned that there is a difference [See Greg. Naz., Orat. 29, 35] between generation and procession, but the nature of that difference we in no wise understand. Further, the generation of the Son from the Father and the procession of the Holy Spirit are simultaneous.
All then that the Son and the Spirit have is from the Father, even their very being [Greg. Naz., Orat. 25.] and unless the Father is, neither the Son nor the Spirit is. And unless the Father possesses a certain attribute, neither the Son nor the Spirit possesses it: and through the Father [Athan., Contra Arian., Orat. 3; Greg. Naz., Orat. 35. So Augustine (Contr. Max. iii. 14, De Trin. xv.). Epiphanius (Anchor.), and Gregory of Nyssa (Epist. ad Ablab.)] that is, because of the Father’s existence [Cyril De Trinitate., the Son and the Spirit exist [Greg. Naz., Orat. 23], and through the Father, that is, because of the Father having the qualities, the Son and the Spirit have all their qualities, those of being unbegotten, and of birth and of procession being excepted Ibid., Orat., 25].
For in these hypobstatic or personal properties alone do the three holy subsistences/hypostases. differ from each other, being indivisibly divided not by essence but by the distinguishing mark of their proper and peculiar subsistence.
To be more accurate, he did not say that the Spirit does not proceed from the Son. He stated that the Spirit is not from the Son. If you check the context of the statement, you will find that not two sentences before that, he states that the Son is not Cause or Father. Obviously, he only meant to say that the Son is not Cause of the Spirit in the same way that the Father is Cause of the Spirit, which is why he immediately adds afterwards that the Spirit is the Spirit OF the Son. A few sentences later, he states that the Spirit is manifested and imparted THROUGH the Son.
Is this what you are talking about?
The Father is the source and cause of the Son and the Holy Spirit: Father of the Son alone and producer of the Holy Spirit. The Son is Son, Word, Wisdom, Power, Image, Effulgence, Impress of the Father and derived from the Father. But the Holy Spirit is not the Son of the Father but the Spirit of the Father as proceeding from the Father. For there is no impulse without Spirit. **And we speak also of the Spirit of the Son, not as through proceeding from Him
, but as proceeding through Him from the Father. For the Father alone is cause.
ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf209.iii.iv.i.xii.html
And before you start to repeat the novel argument that applies the distinction of Essence and Energies into discussions on Filioque,
The relationship between the Son and the Holy Spirit are of the theological (not economic) Trinity, which the distinctions of Essence and Energies down apply, as Each knows the Other as He knows Himself.
St. John himself (actually, the Fathers he cites) introduces it:
“…Each then of the affirmations about God should be thought of as signifying not what He is in
essence, but either something that it is impossible to make plain, or some relation to some of those things which are contrasts or some of
those things that follow the nature, or
an energy” ἢ σχέσιν τινὰ πρὸς τὶ των ἀντιδιαστελλομένων, ἢ τὶ τῶν παρεπομένων τῃ
φύσει, ἢ
ἐνέργειαν. And then picking up again in the secdtion you quote:]
The Deity being incomprehensible is also assuredly nameless. Therefore since we know not His essence, let us not seek for a name for His essence. For names are explanations of actual things [Greg. Naz., Orat. 36]. But God, Who is good and brought us out of nothing into being that we might share in His goodness, and Who gave us the faculty of knowledge, not only did not impart to us His essence, but did not even grant us the knowledge of His essence. For it is impossible for nature to understand fully the supernatural [Dioyns., De div. nom., c. 1.]
St. John Damascene asserts in the very same chapter, “For one cannot say of God that He has being in the first place and goodness in the second.”
What He says is: It appears then that the most proper of all the names given to God is “He that is,” [LXX ὁ ὤν, what is written in EO icons in the Cross in Christ’s halo] as He Himself said in answer to Moses on the mountain, Say to the sons of Israel, He that is hath sent Me [Exod. iii. 14]. For He keeps all being in His own embrace [Greg. Naz., Orat. 36], like a sea of essence infinite and unseen. Or as the holy Dionysius says, “He that is good [Dionys., De div. nom. c. 2, 3 and 4]” For one cannot say of God that He has being in the first place and goodness in the second [This sentence and the preceding are absent in some mss., and are rather more obscurely stated than is usual with John of Damascus].
But the capstone of St. John’s argument against the Eastern Orthodox novelty that the Son has absolutely no part in the Procession of the Spirit is contained in the SAME chapter as your much-vaunted quote:
“And the Holy Spirit is the power of the Father revealing the Hidden Mysteries of the His Divinity, proceeding from the Father through
the Son in a manner known only to Himself, but different from that of generation.**”
And later on, once again, IN THE SAME CHAPTER – “
And we speak also of the Spirit of the Son, not as though proceeding from Him, but as proceeding through Him from the Father**. For the Father alone is cause.”
I think you got lost somewhere here.
We’ve never had a problem with “who proceeds from the Father through the Son,” the use of the word ekporeusis making it clear that we are speaking of the theological Trinity. Also making clear that filioque is a heresy.
What was it you were saying about strawmen and misrepresentation again?
Put those matches down!

(I Corin. 3:13-5).
You can’t fall back on the usual EO rhetoric that assigns “through the Son” only in the manner of economic procession (or whatever your apologists call it),
we call it what the Fathers call it. That’s what makes us CATHOLIC and ORTHODOX.
because St. John is indubitably speaking here about the origin
of the Spirit, even making the proper allusion to the Begetting (generation).
and as we speak here ad nauseum, the proper quote (not allusion) to ekporeusis.
I wish you had room in your signature
My signature?
I think you are talking of your coreligionist Apotheum (is he still with us?).
Or are you talking about
www.orthodoxchristianity.net ?
line to include these other important quotes from the Damascene, so others will see what he ACTUALLY taught.
like above?
As it is, your signature line only supports the EO novelty that the Son has no role in the Procession, not the actual patristic teaching on the matter.
Look again.
And yes, I understand that many EO have already come around to understand and accept that the Catholic Church never taught heresy on the matter (Father Romanides – as well as Bishop Timothy Ware - explicitly admits it is not a heresy, but at best a historical mistake in translation). But there are still those who deny the Son ANY role in the Procession, or those who claim that the procession is only one that is temporal or economic (or however else EO apologists describe it).
As the FATHERS describe it, dia THROUGH.
I brought up these points precisely because they exist or still exist.
Only in Vatican apologies.**