J
johnrcornell
Guest
In Luke 1:28 Mary is said to be “full” of grace, we take this as a sign of her sinlessness. If she is full of grace, there is no room for sin. Isaiah 6:3 says (quoting from Douay Rheims) “all the Earth is full of His glory” which we repeat in the Sanctus during Mass.
If Mary’s being “full” of grace makes her sinless, wouldn’t Earth’s being “full” of God’s glory make Earth sinless? Which of course it is not. Obviously Isaiah didn’t have a vision where the angels glorifying God said “the Earth is filled with much of your glory, except where people are sinning in which case your glory is not present” or he would have said that. Or is it meant that God’s glory is present while people are sinning? Were the WWII concentration camps “full” of God’s glory? That seems blasphemous. How to reconcile?
Thanks in advance for ideas and answers.
If Mary’s being “full” of grace makes her sinless, wouldn’t Earth’s being “full” of God’s glory make Earth sinless? Which of course it is not. Obviously Isaiah didn’t have a vision where the angels glorifying God said “the Earth is filled with much of your glory, except where people are sinning in which case your glory is not present” or he would have said that. Or is it meant that God’s glory is present while people are sinning? Were the WWII concentration camps “full” of God’s glory? That seems blasphemous. How to reconcile?
Thanks in advance for ideas and answers.