Obviously, you are missing the entire point here. No one is justifying the right of one human group to judge another. (Although I don’t see that claim as necessarily a wrong one.) The claim is that if God was behind the command then this is NOT the case of one human group judging another, but of God himself doing so and ordering a sentence in line with the judgement.
By the way, are you claiming moral agents do not have a right to judge the actions of others? That no moral agent has the right to judge the practice of human sacrifice as wrong just because the Aztecs practiced it? The implication is that if a substantively large group endorses a behaviour, that endorsement is sufficient to make the behaviour morally right?
Take that one up with Bradski. I am sure he doesn’t agree with you. At least, he has been arguing that general agreement is not sufficient to make something “morally right.”
Your three questions, by the way, entail an incoherent POV.
You said:
”1) So any religious practice no matter how vile can’t be brought to task? 2) What were the Israelites doing judging the Canaanites?”
- implies we do have a right to judge religious practices but 2) implies we don’t.
Which is it?
Perhaps you need to stop participating in this discussion until you hold a consistently coherent POV.