J
JamestheOlder
Guest
On to Matthew, 16:21-23 (I think I’ve got that right, this time).
Why the consternation here? Both Mark and Matthew tell, in a declarative sentence, rather than in quotes, what Jesus would tell the apostles as they neared Jerusalem. The specific quotes, which Matthew makes later in Chapters 17 and 20, appear to be rhetorical devices, by which he reminds his readers what he (and Mark) have already declared. But these two times, for specific emphasis, he puts the words in quotes.
Nothing denies what Jesus said…only that the specific words may not have been said as described in Matthew. Please remember he is writing (presumably) based on Mark’s work (and possibly Luke’s), but to a different audience than they wrote for.
Please continue with my instruction in these and other texts of question.
I do wish you to consider that the NAB, NABRE, and the Catechism are all published with a “Nihil obstat” and “Imprimatur”. Do we need to consider this in the discussion as well?
Why the consternation here? Both Mark and Matthew tell, in a declarative sentence, rather than in quotes, what Jesus would tell the apostles as they neared Jerusalem. The specific quotes, which Matthew makes later in Chapters 17 and 20, appear to be rhetorical devices, by which he reminds his readers what he (and Mark) have already declared. But these two times, for specific emphasis, he puts the words in quotes.
Nothing denies what Jesus said…only that the specific words may not have been said as described in Matthew. Please remember he is writing (presumably) based on Mark’s work (and possibly Luke’s), but to a different audience than they wrote for.
Please continue with my instruction in these and other texts of question.
I do wish you to consider that the NAB, NABRE, and the Catechism are all published with a “Nihil obstat” and “Imprimatur”. Do we need to consider this in the discussion as well?