Is the Petrine Privilege only an option if the previous marriage was unconsommated

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I read an article by Catholic Culture and they said the following:

The Petrine Privilege is rarely approved. It is the dissolution of a valid, but non-sacramental, natural bond of marriage by the Holy See in certain, specified cases. The determination is based on case-specific facts and circumstances, and is not often used.

Why are these rarely approved?

They are denied even if the couple have all the requirements necessary to petition for it?

Does the Pope judge who gets accepted and who gets denied based on the holiness of the couple, even if they fit all the requirements for a Petrine Privilege dissolution? Do they have to be saintly in order to be approved?

Why are these rarely approved, I don’t get it.
 
I read an article by Catholic Culture and they said the following:

The Petrine Privilege is rarely approved. It is the dissolution of a valid, but non-sacramental, natural bond of marriage by the Holy See in certain, specified cases. The determination is based on case-specific facts and circumstances, and is not often used.

Why are these rarely approved?
You will have to ask them what they base this statement on, not us. This is an unsubstantiated claim on their part. They have not included any reference, source, or statistic to support that claim.
They are denied even if the couple have all the requirements necessary to petition for it?

Does the Pope judge who gets accepted and who gets denied based on the holiness of the couple, even if they fit all the requirements for a Petrine Privilege dissolution? Do they have to be saintly in order to be approved?

Why are these rarely approved, I don’t get it.
Can’t be answered because there is no proof they are “rarely approved”.
 
(name removed by moderator);14033642I think you are reading far too much into this. They are “rarely approved” because they are seldom used. [/quote said:
Agreed. It would more accurate to say they are rare than “rarely approved”.
 
I read an article by Catholic Culture and they said the following:

The Petrine Privilege is rarely approved. It is the dissolution of a valid, but non-sacramental, natural bond of marriage by the Holy See in certain, specified cases. The determination is based on case-specific facts and circumstances, and is not often used.

Why are these rarely approved?

They are denied even if the couple have all the requirements necessary to petition for it?

Does the Pope judge who gets accepted and who gets denied based on the holiness of the couple, even if they fit all the requirements for a Petrine Privilege dissolution? Do they have to be saintly in order to be approved?

Why are these rarely approved, I don’t get it.
Please read this from the CDF:

Norms On The Preparation Of The Process For The Dissolution Of The Marriage Bond In Favour Of The Faith (16 February 2001)

vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20010430_favor-fidei_en.html
 
Please read this from the CDF:

Norms On The Preparation Of The Process For The Dissolution Of The Marriage Bond In Favour Of The Faith (16 February 2001)

vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20010430_favor-fidei_en.html
**Art. 4

For the concession of the favour of the dissolution of the bond, at the moment it is given, it is required that:

1º there is no possibility of resuming the partnership of conjugal life;**

What is meant here by “no possibility of resuming the partnership of conjugal life”? When is the requirement fulfilled?, since there is always a possibility of conjugal life resuming due to a possible miracle on the ex spouse’s part, etc.
 
**Art. 4

For the concession of the favour of the dissolution of the bond, at the moment it is given, it is required that:

1º there is no possibility of resuming the partnership of conjugal life;**

What is meant here by “no possibility of resuming the partnership of conjugal life”? When is the requirement fulfilled?, since there is always a possibility of conjugal life resuming due to a possible miracle on the ex spouse’s part, etc.
Such miracles seem to be exceedingly rare - somewhat of the category of hens’ teeth.

The requirement is fulfilled through a careful examination of the facts - which often, but not always, include the other party marrying someone else. That really does tend to throw ice water on the matter…😛
 
**Art. 4

For the concession of the favour of the dissolution of the bond, at the moment it is given, it is required that:

1º there is no possibility of resuming the partnership of conjugal life;**

What is meant here by “no possibility of resuming the partnership of conjugal life”? When is the requirement fulfilled?, since there is always a possibility of conjugal life resuming due to a possible miracle on the ex spouse’s part, etc.
That’s also a requirement to get a decree of nullity. That requirement is satisfied when the couple has a divorce.
 
**Art. 4

For the concession of the favour of the dissolution of the bond, at the moment it is given, it is required that:

1º there is no possibility of resuming the partnership of conjugal life;**

What is meant here by “no possibility of resuming the partnership of conjugal life”? When is the requirement fulfilled?, since there is always a possibility of conjugal life resuming due to a possible miracle on the ex spouse’s part, etc.
In the real world, one does not look at the possibility of a couple, divorced in their 30’s, having any likelihood of remarrying in their 60’s. Add to this the simple fact that most, meaning the vast majority, of people who have gone through a divorce are not going to apply to the tribunal while the ink is still wet on the judge’s signature.

Although occasionally there will be one party to a divorce still wishing to get back together, it is a rare circumstance; and in my experience, it often is a matter that the party so wishing has a very unrealistic view of what the marriage life constituted. Meaning, they give the appearance of not being particularly strongly associated with reality. Further, if one so desired reconciliation, the likelihood is that they are not the party seeking a decree of nullity - thus the matter is self-correcting.

The tribunal is not a criminal court, requiring proof beyond a reasonable doubt; and while its judgments on not infallible, those involved in the decision take their duties seriously and make all reasonable inquiries. If they are dealing with the petitioner of the original divorce, they are dealing with the person most likely having no intent whatsoever of getting back together. If they are dealing with the respondent, it is not all that difficult to determine the current, post-divorce relationship (which often appears to be more difficult than the pre-divorce relationship), all of which is relevant evidence that there is no likelihood of reconciliation. It really is not that difficult to determine - particularly when open-ended questions are used to elicit information which the individual seeking the decree of nullity does not know the purpose.

Only in a fantasy world is there “always a possibility of conjugal life resuming due to a possible miracle on the ex spouse’s part, etc.”. God does not play games with people or with their conscience. There are many relationships which the civil world calls “marriage” which have, at their base - as of the date of the marriage - an impediment to a valid marriage. In some cases, that is never going to change. In others, the damage which occurred during the period of the marriage guranatees no reconciliation. In rare cases people do reconcile; and the likelihood is that those cases never get to the starting point of seeking a decree of nullity. God simply does not go around “zapping” people to make them someone other than who they are.
 
If they are dealing with the petitioner of the original divorce, they are dealing with the person most likely having no intent whatsoever of getting back together. If they are dealing with the respondent, it is not all that difficult to determine the current, post-divorce relationship (which often appears to be more difficult than the pre-divorce relationship), all of which is relevant evidence that there is no likelihood of reconciliation
So it’s not just a matter of if one of the parties wants to get back together? Both parties have to have a desire to get back together in order for said possibility to be applicable?
 
So it’s not just a matter of if one of the parties wants to get back together? Both parties have to have a desire to get back together in order for said possibility to be applicable?
Last time I checked, it took two to make a marriage. If one does not want to get back together, it really doesn’t matter what the other one wants.

“Irreconcilable differences have caused the irremediable breakdown of the marriage” is how the civil courts put it.

That is cold; that is harsh; and that is the reality of a breakdown of a marriage (civil). Keep in mind that a number of marriages (and I am speaking of marriages of those which are the subject of this thread) are not valid - for a variety of reasons.

And as noted, some may be resolved through either the Pauline or Petrine privilege.
 
Ok,

I have read from a priest on this site that if the ex spouse answered ‘Yes’, to the question of 'Would you be willing to get back with your partner"…then the privilege would be “out of the question” for the new inquiring couple.

Is that a misrepresentation of the rule? Anyone have experience with this?

I’ve also seen some diocese questionnaires for the petition ask if the former spouse would be willing to come back to the marriage, even after asking when the divorce happen. So thats why I question if just having the divorce officialized would be enough to fulfill the requirement. Or else why would they ask both those questions?
 
If an unbaptized person married a baptized Christian…consummated the marriage…and then later got divorced…would the unbaptized person be disqualified from using the Petrine Privilege?
 
If an unbaptized person married a baptized Christian…consummated the marriage…and then later got divorced…would the unbaptized person be disqualified from using the Petrine Privilege?
No, dissolution is possible for of a non-sacramental (natural) marriage in favor of the faith.

Article 1:

A marriage entered into by parties, of whom at least one is not baptised, can be dissolved in favour of the faith by the Roman Pontiff, provided that it has not been consummated after both parties have received baptism.

Also there are conditions, see Norms.

Norms:
vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20010430_favor-fidei_en.html
 
Is the Petrine Privilege only an option if the previous marriage was unconsummated
No. The canon on dissolution of a non-consummated bond is canon 1142. It is not the “Petrine Privilege”.

The norms governing the favor of the faith (Petrine Privilege) are:
vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20010430_favor-fidei_en.html
If an unbaptized person married a baptized Christian…consummated the marriage…and then later got divorced…would the unbaptized person be disqualified from using the Petrine Privilege?
No.
 
No, dissolution is possible for of a non-sacramental (natural) marriage in favor of the faith.

Article 1:

A marriage entered into by parties, of whom at least one is not baptised, can be dissolved in favour of the faith by the Roman Pontiff, provided that it has not been consummated after both parties have received baptism.

Also there are conditions, see Norms.

Norms:
vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20010430_favor-fidei_en.html
That’s right, my second husband received such an annulment signed by Pope Paul VI, God Bless, Memaw
 
That’s right, my second husband received such an annulment signed by Pope Paul VI, God Bless, Memaw
A dissolution of the bond is not a a decree of nullity. It is a dissolution of a valid, natural bond, not a finding that no bond exists.
 
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