T
thenobes
Guest
Suppose, as in Unam Sanctam, the Pope deifnes something that is disregarding previous teaching, for instance, invincible ignorance.
Would that teaching be only true in regards to what has not been previously defined?
Is is possible the definieion of Papal infallibilty is improperly worded, not giving proper recognition to previous magisterial teachings?
Or am I wrong and the declaraion of infallibility includes somehow this incorporation of all previous teachings?
peace
steve
Would that teaching be only true in regards to what has not been previously defined?
Is is possible the definieion of Papal infallibilty is improperly worded, not giving proper recognition to previous magisterial teachings?
Or am I wrong and the declaraion of infallibility includes somehow this incorporation of all previous teachings?
peace
steve