W
wabrams
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I do hope this is the proper sub-forum for this topic. I’m not Roman Catholic, so that’s why I am asking. For every RC I ask this question to, I get a different answer. Thank you all!
There are three main areas of confusion with this doctrine.891 “The Roman Pontiff, head of the college of bishops, enjoys this infallibility in virtue of his office, when, as supreme pastor and teacher of all the faithful - who confirms his brethren in the faith he proclaims by a definitive act a doctrine pertaining to faith or morals. . . . The infallibility promised to the Church is also present in the body of bishops when, together with Peter’s successor, they exercise the supreme Magisterium,” above all in an Ecumenical Council.418 When the Church through its supreme Magisterium proposes a doctrine "for belief as being divinely revealed,"419 and as the teaching of Christ, the definitions "must be adhered to with the obedience of faith."420 This infallibility extends as far as the deposit of divine Revelation itself.421
Yes, the Pope has the assurance of Christ that when he teaches on matters of Faith or Morals, binding on the universal Church as the successor of Peter he will not teach error.I do hope this is the proper sub-forum for this topic. I’m not Roman Catholic, so that’s why I am asking. For every RC I ask this question to, I get a different answer. Thank you all!
Bias is one thing.When we can see 300 years later that what the Pope said was right, then we know it was infallible. When he’s wrong, it’s not infallible.
BouleTheou
wabrams appeared to be asking what the Catholic Church teaches on this issue. Let us charitably assume that if wabrams takes issue with the Catholic position, he or she can do it unaided.When we can see 300 years later that what the Pope said was right, then we know it was infallible. When he’s wrong, it’s not infallible.
BouleTheou
I’m not Roman Catholic so that’s why I am asking. I promise I’m not trying to be a troll, but just understand since my soon to be fiance is RC. I sincerely want to learn more, that’s all. Again, thank you all and please keep your thoughts and opinions coming!wabrams appeared to be asking what the Catholic Church teaches on this issue. Let us charitably assume that if wabrams takes issue with the Catholic position, he or she can do it unaided.
When do you believe that pope has definitively taught something on a matter of faith and morals that was binding on all believers but was wrong? Is this your opinion or objective truth?When we can see 300 years later that what the Pope said was right, then we know it was infallible. When he’s wrong, it’s not infallible.
BouleTheou
I am not quite sure what you are asking.Thank you all for your thoughts, but please keep them coming.
I do understand the differences between infallibility and impeccability. But if the Pope can teach the doctorine w/o error, then wouldn’t this mean there would be no other way to teach but the correct way?
Sort of. Infallibility only includes WHAT the pope officially teaches, not how, when, or if he teaches it. Infallibility doesn’t ensure that the way the pope teaches something will necessarily be clearly understood. If doesn’t guarentee that he will teach when he should (he may remain silent when he really should be speaking out for or against something). All it gaurentees is that when he does officially teach that it won’t be wrong.Thank you all for your thoughts, but please keep them coming.
I do understand the differences between infallibility and impeccability. But if the Pope can teach the doctorine w/o error, then wouldn’t this mean there would be no other way to teach but the correct way?
Actually, the entire ordinary Magisterium of the Church, which includes the Creeds, is infallible. The ex cathedra promulgation you are referring to was in 1950: the Dogma of the Assumption of the Blessed Virgin Mary.The Pope is infallible only when speaking “ex cathedra”. This is specific moral doctrine of the Church. The Pope is a man born with original sin just like the rest of us. He goes to confession as well. I believe the last ex cathedra statement was in the 60’s and was about the assumption of Mary. Hope that helps.
EXCELLENT answer! :clapping:Sort of. Infallibility only includes WHAT the pope officially teaches, not how, when, or if he teaches it. Infallibility doesn’t ensure that the way the pope teaches something will necessarily be clearly understood. If doesn’t guarentee that he will teach when he should (he may remain silent when he really should be speaking out for or against something). All it gaurentees is that when he does officially teach that it won’t be wrong.
In Christ,
Nancy![]()
BouleTheou;When we can see 300 years later that what the Pope said was right, then we know it was infallible. When he’s wrong, it’s not infallible.
BouleTheou
Boule, if you are inclined to answer this question, please have the courtesy to do it on another thread.BouleTheou;
Please cite instances where this has occurred?
That pretty much answers my question. So basically what I’m hearing is his interpretations of church doctrine and and the Bible are infallible. Or did I just get this wrong?I am not quite sure what you are asking.
If you are asking if the pope can teach error, yes he can, but when teaching it as something the entire church teaches and believe he will not teach error. Part of the popes job is to maintain orthodoxy in the church, which means that he can not just start defining dogmas of the church.
The pope enjoys the personal charism of infallibility only when he speaks on matters of faith and morals* ex cathedra* (Lit., from the Chair of Peter), i.e., explicitly as the earthly leader of Christ’s Church. It is possible for a pope to hold and teach erroneous personal opinions as a theologian or as a Bible scholar but, when he speaks ex cathedra on matters of faith and morals, he enjoys the charism of infallibility.That pretty much answers my question. So basically what I’m hearing is his interpretations of church doctrine and the Bible are infallible. Or did I just get this wrong?