Is the Pope is infallible when teaching on faith and morals?

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Is the Pope is infallible when teaching on faith and morals?

The First Vatican Council infallibly taught and defined that the Pope by himself only teaches infallibly when certain criteria are met. Second Vatican Council reaffirmed these criteria, with somewhat different wording. Now one of the criteria is that the teaching be on faith and morals, but there are other criteria that must be met.

Vatican I wording:
  1. “the Roman Pontiff”
  2. “speaks ex cathedra” (“that is, when in the discharge of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, and by virtue of his supreme apostolic authority….”)
  3. “he defines”
  4. “that a doctrine concerning faith or morals”
  5. “must be held by the whole Church”
Vatican II wording:
  1. “the Roman Pontiff”
  2. “in virtue of his office, when as the supreme shepherd and teacher of all the faithful, who confirms his brethren in their faith (cf. Lk 22:32),”
  3. “by a definitive act, he proclaims”
  4. “a doctrine of faith or morals” (“And this infallibility…in defining doctrine of faith and morals, extends as far as the deposit of revelation extends”)
  5. “in accordance with revelation itself, which all are obliged to abide by and be in conformity with”
(Some theologians number the criteria as four, but they combine 1 and 2 above, so the actual criteria are the same.)

Anyone who claims that the criteria for papal infallibility is less than was infallibly defined by Vatican I is contradicting an infallible solemn definition of an Ecumenical Council.

So consider this claim:
the Pope is infallible when teaching on faith and morals.

It asserts the first and fourth criteria, but not the other criteria, therefore, it does not meet the test for papal infallibility. Also, the sentence seems to imply that the Pope is always infallible even when exercising the ordinary Magisterium (not the ordinary universal magisterium which is infallible). But this idea that the ordinary Magisterium is always infallible is not the teaching of the Church.

There is an erroneous idea among some Catholics that the Pope is always infallible, even when the criteria for infallibility solemnly defined by Vatican I have not been met. But this contradicts the teaching of Vatican I, approved by Pope Pius XI.

Ron Conte
 
Ron_Conte said:
Is the Pope is infallible when teaching on faith and morals?

The First Vatican Council infallibly taught and defined that the Pope by himself only teaches infallibly when certain criteria are met. Second Vatican Council reaffirmed these criteria, with somewhat different wording. Now one of the criteria is that the teaching be on faith and morals, but there are other criteria that must be met.

Vatican I wording:
  1. “the Roman Pontiff”
  2. “speaks ex cathedra” (“that is, when in the discharge of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, and by virtue of his supreme apostolic authority….”)
  3. “he defines”
  4. “that a doctrine concerning faith or morals”
  5. “must be held by the whole Church”
Vatican II wording:
  1. “the Roman Pontiff”
  2. “in virtue of his office, when as the supreme shepherd and teacher of all the faithful, who confirms his brethren in their faith (cf. Lk 22:32),”
  3. “by a definitive act, he proclaims”
  4. “a doctrine of faith or morals” (“And this infallibility…in defining doctrine of faith and morals, extends as far as the deposit of revelation extends”)
  5. “in accordance with revelation itself, which all are obliged to abide by and be in conformity with”
(Some theologians number the criteria as four, but they combine 1 and 2 above, so the actual criteria are the same.)

Anyone who claims that the criteria for papal infallibility is less than was infallibly defined by Vatican I is contradicting an infallible solemn definition of an Ecumenical Council.

So consider this claim:
the Pope is infallible when teaching on faith and morals.

It asserts the first and fourth criteria, but not the other criteria, therefore, it does not meet the test for papal infallibility. Also, the sentence seems to imply that the Pope is always infallible even when exercising the ordinary Magisterium (not the ordinary universal magisterium which is infallible). But this idea that the ordinary Magisterium is always infallible is not the teaching of the Church.

There is an erroneous idea among some Catholics that the Pope is always infallible, even when the criteria for infallibility solemnly defined by Vatican I have not been met. But this contradicts the teaching of Vatican I, approved by Pope Pius XI.

Ron Conte
Click to expand...
I agree whole heartidly Ron. I find the one criteria that is not meant the most often, (to make the teaching dogma) is that the Pope usually does not intend to define anything. There is debate as to what belongs to the universal magisterium and since there is no list that the Church has come up with, the debates will continue. I would also like your opinion to see if this papal teaching meets the criteria laid out by Vat. Ipapalencyclicals.net/Ben12/B12bdeus.html
 
Yes, the Constitution issued by Pope Benedict XII in 1336, On the Beatific Vision of God, meets all of the criteria for papal infallibility, in my theological opinion.

Ron Conte
 
Ron_Conte said:
Is the Pope is infallible when teaching on faith and morals?

The First Vatican Council infallibly taught and defined that the Pope by himself only teaches infallibly when certain criteria are met. Second Vatican Council reaffirmed these criteria, with somewhat different wording. Now one of the criteria is that the teaching be on faith and morals, but there are other criteria that must be met.

Vatican I wording:
  1. “the Roman Pontiff”
  2. “speaks ex cathedra” (“that is, when in the discharge of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, and by virtue of his supreme apostolic authority….”)
  3. “he defines”
  4. “that a doctrine concerning faith or morals”
  5. “must be held by the whole Church”
Vatican II wording:
  1. “the Roman Pontiff”
  2. “in virtue of his office, when as the supreme shepherd and teacher of all the faithful, who confirms his brethren in their faith (cf. Lk 22:32),”
  3. “by a definitive act, he proclaims”
  4. “a doctrine of faith or morals” (“And this infallibility…in defining doctrine of faith and morals, extends as far as the deposit of revelation extends”)
  5. “in accordance with revelation itself, which all are obliged to abide by and be in conformity with”
(Some theologians number the criteria as four, but they combine 1 and 2 above, so the actual criteria are the same.)

Anyone who claims that the criteria for papal infallibility is less than was infallibly defined by Vatican I is contradicting an infallible solemn definition of an Ecumenical Council.

So consider this claim:
the Pope is infallible when teaching on faith and morals.

It asserts the first and fourth criteria, but not the other criteria, therefore, it does not meet the test for papal infallibility. Also, the sentence seems to imply that the Pope is always infallible even when exercising the ordinary Magisterium (not the ordinary universal magisterium which is infallible). But this idea that the ordinary Magisterium is always infallible is not the teaching of the Church.

There is an erroneous idea among some Catholics that the Pope is always infallible, even when the criteria for infallibility solemnly defined by Vatican I have not been met. But this contradicts the teaching of Vatican I, approved by Pope Pius XI.

Ron Conte
Click to expand...
It should be “The Pope teaches infallibly when he definitively teaches on matters of Faith and Morals.” I myself sometimes get in a hurry and forget the word definitively.
 
i have totally missed your point. Vatican II affirms Vatican I…what is the problem?
 
My point is that the Pope also exercises the ordinary non-infallible magisterium, so one cannot conclude that everything the Pope teaches is necessarily infallible.

Adding ‘definitively’ to the sentence improves it, but I’m concerned that some Catholics have concluded that the Pope is always infallible in all that he teaches. They exclude the Pope from ‘non-infallible expressions of the authentic magisterium of the Church’ and from all possible errors on matters of faith and morals. This was clearly not the intention of Pope Pius XI and the First Vatican Council.

According to Pope John Paul II, the Magisterium teaches both infallibly and non-infallibly:

This magisterium is not above the divine word but serves it with a specific carisma veritatis certum, which includes the charism of infallibility, present not only in the solemn definitions of the Roman Pontiff and of Ecumenical Councils, but also in the universal ordinary magisterium, which can truly be considered as the usual expression of the Church’s infallibility.

Notice that Pope John Paul II limits the infallibility of the Pope by himself, and of Councils to ‘solemn definitions’. And he also says:

With respect to the non-infallible expressions of the authentic magisterium of the Church, these should be received with religious submission of mind and will.

ADDRESS OF THE HOLY FATHER JOHN PAUL II TO THE BISHOPS FROM THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA ON THEIR «AD LIMINA» VISIT (Thursday, 15 October 1988)
 
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