S
St_Gregory
Guest
I’m not questioning the sinful nature of contraception - that is an absolute moral wrong based on the sin of Onan and Natural Moral Law confirmed by Christian Tradition.
But what about when condoms are used solely for the purpose of preventing STDs? I mean a married couple should express there love and if they are likely to catch an STD then why should the use of condoms be wrong, as long as it does not involve a contraceptive mentality?
I would say the couple should have at least one or ordinarily about 3 children but if they have had these children but are still at risk of STDs then is a condom really wrong?
I probably have phrased the question poorly but what do you think?
But what about when condoms are used solely for the purpose of preventing STDs? I mean a married couple should express there love and if they are likely to catch an STD then why should the use of condoms be wrong, as long as it does not involve a contraceptive mentality?
I would say the couple should have at least one or ordinarily about 3 children but if they have had these children but are still at risk of STDs then is a condom really wrong?
I probably have phrased the question poorly but what do you think?