Is there a logic to infallibility?

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Perhaps that ought to be amended to: “if we find that a particular ideology is evidently unreasonable or illogical, e.g., if it contradicts itself.” Call me fussy, but “not reasonable” begs too much definition.
Fussy is good. I agree.
As for God transcending (human) reason, “As the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways and my thoughts than your thoughts” (Isaiah 55:9).
Does this verse indicate that God is illogical, or that God would contradict Himself? I was trying to take this as an axiom, in order to reject Churches that themselves are illogical.
That, however, is rarely claimed. Protestant churches more commonly claim to be following the universal doctrines of C1st Christianity. Given how little we know about those doctrines, i.e., only what is in the Bible, I am not sure how far they can be proved wrong in that claim, although the valuation of the C1st can be questioned. Therefore, their status as being illogical remains undemonstrated.
Well we have more than just the Bible. We have all of the writings of the early Church. In particular, we have the writings of Ignatius of Antioch near the beginning of the second century. These writings are very Catholic in nature (or at the least, Episcopal) and these writings need to be outrightly rejected by Evangelicals/Presbyterians/non-denominationalists (sorry I’m struggling to classify the relevant groups here) as being patently false. But if you consider how Ignatius of Antioch was viewed by the other Christians of his time and those following him (ie they viewed him as being a very good Christian) then you are left with needing to assert that the Christian Church apostacized virtually before the death of the apostle John, if you want to hold to the beliefs of the afore-mentioned Protestant groups. To me, this is illogical if I believe in a God that wants us to know certain things about Him. Perhaps this is a non sequitur here. On the other hand, it is much easier to claim that it makes no sense to follow the Bible if you believe the Church apostacized so early. But that is probably the topic for another thread…
I should possibly have stated that I believe that God is truly omnipotent: i.e., “Nothing is impossible for God,” as Jesus said. Under such a presumption, God is necessarily involved in everything that occurs, by virtue of always having the power to prevent or allow it. Thus, both Original Sin and this fallibility are results of the will of God: we are so because God allows us to be so. This is not equivalent to saying that we are not at fault for our sins, but does mean that God is, too. Yes, I know: I am a heretic. 😛
I know you must realise how foreign an idea it is for me that God could be at fault for our sins. But instead of lambasting you, I just want you to consider something. Actually, it might help if I know what your beliefs or ideas are on free will? Anyway, consider that the omnipotent God loves us more than we could possibly imagine. So why does He let us sin? For the very reason that He loves us so much! Because He loves us, He refuses to force us to not sin, even though He could definitely choose to do this if He willed it. Under this view of things, is it still true that God is at fault for our sin, or is it purely a product of our own fault? True God created us with the ability to sin if we so choose, but that sin was not created by God.
I choose to believe in an omnipotent God because I would not worship something which is merely a more-powerful version of me, but it does create certain logical issues.
Makes sense to me.
 
Yes; if we are in accord with objective Truth, then we are right. I feel reasonably secure claiming that “2+2=4” is True as a general rule of abstract mathematics. For more complex issues, however, such as the nature of God, of salvation, or of the hereafter, I beg leave to say that we lack sufficient data to prove or disprove very much, if anything, about them. As such, we have no means of ensuring accuracy, or demonstrating that we are in accord with objective Truth. Without a means of measuring the objective Truth, we cannot know that Proposition X is in accord with it. (More on this in the next post)
Indeed we do lack such “proof”. But what we do have, is a mountain of evidence. The Catholic Church is a Church of witnesses. We believe in the divinity of Christ thanks to the witness of the earliest Christians, who were martyred for their faith. If we believe this witness (while not being actual “proof”) is sufficient to believe in the divinity of Christ as being an objective truth, then surely it is possible to believe in other things with as much confidence, so long as there is a sufficient witness to these other things. My claim (to be verified) is that there is sufficient witness to the infallibility of the Church of Rome.
Many Protestant churches claim the same thing, as does much of Islam, every branch of Buddhism (that being Buddhism’s whole point), and more than a few crazed cults. That claim is as difficult to prove, my friend, as it is easy to make. 😦
Do other Protestant Churches claim infallibility for their own Church? I thought they did not. I suppose your last sentence is somewhat true, but I would add that it is easy in most cases to demonstrate a false claim of this variety. To believe in Islam I would need to believe in a God that contradicts Himself. The same is true for most of Protestantism. As for Buddhism, well I just don’t know enough about it…
I must highlight Newman’s assumption that God would not allow Christians over the centuries to be in error. I know that this idea is very popular amongst Christians, e.g., among Protestants for Sola Scriptura, and not least amongst Catholics, but I see no means by which it could be demonstrated as true. In order to prove Newman’s assumption, we would have to be able to do two things: demonstrate an unvarying continuity of belief, which is not too challenging, and then prove true what Christians now believe, which is impossible when we have nothing to prove it against. We have no external criteria against which we can measure our belief, and by that alone would we ever be able to prove it true. That is why it is ‘belief’, rather than ‘knowledge’.
You are correct, of course. But I would add that if we can demonstrate the first thing you mention - an unvarying continuity of belief - then this in itself is a fantastic witness for the Truth of such belief. It is not a logical proof, but it is a good witness. If the Catholic Church can maintain a continuity of belief for almost twenty centuries, despite such momentous upheavals as the Great Schism, the Reformation and the age of Enlightenment, then it is either the luckiest organisation in the world, or it is divinely protected. I know I haven’t argued very well here, sorry about that.
 
I am afraid that the form of the task renders it impossible. Catholic teaching is that the Catholic Church has the most desirable of all possible paths to God. As such, the mere act of leaving the Catholic Church constitutes a ‘twisting’ of Catholic teaching in the denial of that particular.
Well, I would say it constitutes a denial of the Catholic teaching, rather than a twisting. Personally I think Luther himself is one of the only people who qualifies under my challenge. I honestly think that Luther’s reasoning was correct: he saw that the Church was wrong in a particular doctrine, and tried to fix it. When the Church stubbornly (and correctly imo) refused, he concluded that the Church must not be protected by the Holy Spirit. The logic is flawless, as far as I know. His mistake was in his interpretation of the Bible on the matter of justification of course. But did he “twist” the teaching of the Church on justification? I don’t think so.
Still, even were I to search around and find another, or ten, or a hundred, who converted, as Luther and all of his followers did, because they did not believe that the Church was right, I would merely be demonstrating that we disagree with you, not that we are correct. As noted earlier, we lack the means to prove the accuracy of our beliefs, which is why they are ‘beliefs’.
True.

It’s fairly clear to me that you are much more skilled in rhetoric and logic than I am. I’m worried that I’m going to mess up and force you further away from the Church. Please understand that I’m trying to do my best, but it’s unfortunately very possible that I’ll mess up at various places along the way! On the other hand, I have found this thread to be very challenging and very enjoyable 🙂
 
I have resolved my issues, thanks to a 3 hour conversation I was able to have tonight after RCIA with a visiting priest. I will get into further details and explanations later.

I do want to say right now that I’m not sure to what extent the difference is between “canon” and “canon law,” (if there is any difference at all), but I did confirm tonight in my conversation with the same aforementioned priest what I had heard before about canon law dealing with discipline only, and that it is NOT infallible. He should know, too, since he specialized in canon law at seminary.

More to follow.
Hey Dalik I’m hoping you’re still checking this thread from time to time. I found the following from the Catholic Encyclopedia, and thought it might help your understanding of exactly what is considered infallible at Ecumenical Councils:
It has been sometimes said that it is impossible to know whether or not a theological definition has been issued; but very few words are needed to show that the assertion is without foundation. At times, doubt will remain about the definitive nature of a decree, but as a rule no possibility of doubt is consistent with the terminology of a definitive decree. Thus in the doctrinal teaching of a general council, anathema attached to condemned errors is a certain sign of an infallible definition. Words also like those in which Pius IX solemnly defined the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin give irrefutable proof of the definitive nature of the decree: “By the authority of Our Lord Jesus Christ and of the Blessed Apostles Peter and Paul, and by Our own authority, We declare, pronounce and define the doctrine . . . to be revealed by God and as such to be firmly and immutably held by all the faithful.” No set form of words is necessary; any form which clearly indicates that the four requisite conditions are present suffices to show that the decree is a definition in the strict sense. It should be noted that not everything contained in a definition is infallibly defined. Thus, arguments from Scripture, tradition, or theological reason, do not come under the exercise of definitive authority. Incidental statements, called obiter dicta, are also examples of non-definitive utterances. Only the doctrine itself, to which those arguments lead and which these obiter dicta illustrate, is to be considered as infallibly defined. (See INFALLIBILITY; CENSURES, THEOLOGICAL; DOGMATIC FACTS; BEATIFICATION AND CANONIZATION; FAITH.)
source.
 
what we do have is a mountain of evidence. The Catholic Church is a Church of witnesses. We believe in the divinity of Christ thanks to the witness of the earliest Christians, who were martyred for their faith. If we believe this witness (while not being actual “proof”) is sufficient to believe in the divinity of Christ as being an objective truth, then surely it is possible to believe in other things with as much confidence, so long as there is a sufficient witness to these other things. My claim (to be verified) is that there is sufficient witness to the infallibility of the Church of Rome.
Yet the differences between the two situations lie in the volume of support and the presence of contradiction. The divinity of Christ is attested by all of the Christians in the world, and has always been so, given that it is the basis for the definition of ‘Christian’. The infallibility of the Roman Catholic Church is believed by approximately half of those Christians, has only been official doctrine since 1869, and is contested by practically every Christian who is not a Catholic, and a few naughty ones who are. Still, I would argue against taking either degree of support as evidence, for the reasons mentioned below.
Do other Protestant Churches claim infallibility for their own Church? I thought they did not. I suppose your last sentence is somewhat true, but I would add that it is easy in most cases to demonstrate a false claim of this variety. To believe in Islam I would need to believe in a God that contradicts Himself. The same is true for most of Protestantism. As for Buddhism, well I just don’t know enough about it…
Sola Scriptura Protestants claim infallibility for the text, which does amount to their being able to provide the One True Source of Knowledge, i.e., the Bible. Islam does the same with the Qu’ran; as for contradictions in the text, they are usually dealt with in much the same way as the contradictions in the Bible, i.e., by creative readings. Buddhism is based on the idea that all existence as we know it is actually an illusion caused by our adherence to fleshly desires, and that following the Truth of the Teaching will release us from the illusion, allowing us to escape this existence. All make the same claim about infallible provision of the Truth.
if we can demonstrate the first thing you mention - an unvarying continuity of belief - then this in itself is a fantastic witness for the Truth of such belief. It is not a logical proof, but it is a good witness. If the Catholic Church can maintain a continuity of belief for almost twenty centuries, despite such momentous upheavals as the Great Schism, the Reformation and the age of Enlightenment, then it is either the luckiest organisation in the world, or it is divinely protected. I know I haven’t argued very well here, sorry about that.
Unfortunately, continuity of belief better demonstrates the effectiveness of structures of reiteration than it does the validity of that belief. The Chinese have believed for more than four thousand years that theirs is the greatest nation on earth. Having lived there, I disagree, and I do not think that their mere numbers make them right, either. 😃

More significantly, the danger of believing in something because it has been believed is that people frequently reiterate convenient falsehoods. Consider the nationalist jargon of most of the nations on earth, especially those of former greatness, such as Greece and Italy, and even, more recently, Britain. Consider all of the common Protestant myths about Catholicism, most of which have been repeated since the Reformation. All it takes is for one authority to proclaim something which they imagine to be true, and, true or not, it can then be repeated by a successor, and then another because two people said it, and then a fourth because three did, and, all too soon, you have a tradition built upon itself, without actually needing any other evidence to support it.
I’m worried that I’m going to mess up and force you further away from the Church. Please understand that I’m trying to do my best, but it’s unfortunately very possible that I’ll mess up at various places along the way! On the other hand, I have found this thread to be very challenging and very enjoyable 🙂
I have been enjoying it too, thank you, and we are both worried about damaging the other’s faith in the Catholic Church! You worry that you will not be persuasive enough, and I worry that I will be too persuasive, and tarnish your faith in your faith. I do not imagine that it is terribly likely, but I would not like to be responsible for such a thing.

Do not fear that you will force me away from the Church. To be brutally frank, I take your views as the views of a Catholic, whereas I take Canon Law, the Catechism, Vatican pronouncements, etc as the views of the Church. Howsoever much I might (dis)agree with you, my disagreements with them run rather deeper. I spent three years studying Catholicism to see whether I could become a Catholic, and the answer came back negative. There are a number of Catholic doctrines and practices with which I cannot agree, infallibility merely being the linch-pin because it is the one which is used to validate all the rest.

That said, I am not so far from the Catholic Church, because my Christianity is simple enough, and pluralistic enough, to allow me to love and respect many things Catholic without believing all of the doctrine.

I just realised that I missed your question about free will, which really goes with the discussion of God’s role in sin. As I imagine it, it works as follows: God allows us to choose to do what we do, possibly because God values freedom (but guessing divine motivation is always a doubtful exercise). We are responsible for our actions. God knows beforehand when we will sin. God is responsible for allowing us those actions. This in no way diminishes our culpability, in much the same way that my standing and watching the knife attack in the other post lessens the attacker’s responsibility for committing murder.
 
Unfortunately, continuity of belief better demonstrates the effectiveness of structures of reiteration than it does the validity of that belief. The Chinese have believed for more than four thousand years that theirs is the greatest nation on earth. Having lived there, I disagree, and I do not think that their mere numbers make them right, either. 😃
Hehe!
I have been enjoying it too, thank you, and we are both worried about damaging the other’s faith in the Catholic Church! You worry that you will not be persuasive enough, and I worry that I will be too persuasive, and tarnish your faith in your faith. I do not imagine that it is terribly likely, but I would not like to be responsible for such a thing.
You’re right, it’s not likely at all! 🙂
Do not fear that you will force me away from the Church. To be brutally frank, I take your views as the views of a Catholic, whereas I take Canon Law, the Catechism, Vatican pronouncements, etc as the views of the Church. Howsoever much I might (dis)agree with you, my disagreements with them run rather deeper. I spent three years studying Catholicism to see whether I could become a Catholic, and the answer came back negative. There are a number of Catholic doctrines and practices with which I cannot agree, infallibility merely being the linch-pin because it is the one which is used to validate all the rest.
This thread is about the “logic” of infallibility. In your last sentence, you unknowingly stated one of the greatest (in my mind) heuristic reasons for the infallibility of the Church. The very reason that this doctrine is the linchpin as it were, is why it is there. That is why Cyprian of Carthage said that the Church of Rome is the Church from which sacerdotal unity derives. If sacerdotal unity is derived from the Church at Rome, then the Church at Rome must be the final arbiter on Earth in matters of dispute. Therefore, it must be infallible.
That said, I am not so far from the Catholic Church, because my Christianity is simple enough, and pluralistic enough, to allow me to love and respect many things Catholic without believing all of the doctrine.
This makes me glad. Having said that, I don’t think I can contribute any more to this conversation. I would like to thank you though, it’s been very worthwhile!
 
If sacerdotal unity is derived from the Church at Rome, then the Church at Rome must be the final arbiter on Earth in matters of dispute. Therefore, it must be infallible.
…which takes us back to the beginning! 😃
This makes me glad. Having said that, I don’t think I can contribute any more to this conversation. I would like to thank you though, it’s been very worthwhile!
Thank you; it has taught me quite a lot.
 
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