T
tafan2
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One could ask the same question about Adam.
If Christ took on the fullness of our humanity, then yes, He took on our propensity to sin, and really everything that came about as a consequence of the fall (esp. death). Yet, being God, He took all these things on without sin, and destroyed them through His death and resurrection.Secondly, are you saying that the Orthodox believe that Christ had the propensity to sin (inherited from Mary)? If so, how could He be the spotless lamb that was slain in a once and for all sacrifice?
Follow up question.If Christ took on the fullness of our humanity, then yes, He took on our propensity to sin, and really everything that came about as a consequence of the fall (esp. death).
Not exactly true. Latins meant it in “per Filio” way which is how dogmatically it is defined anyway.The problem is that the Latin doesn’t have “through” (“per”); it uses “ex”+ablative (qui ex Patre Filioque procedit), which means something different than just “through”.
According to the Filioque teaching, it is impossible to see why the Holy Spirit could not be called a grandson!
Those two statements actually explain themselves I guess. By the way, “through” also refutes above statement about grandson.he Son comes from the Father through begetting (“The Only-Begotten Son”) while the Holy Spirit does not (he “proceeds from the Father”). Clearly they are not the same.
Exactly. And, if I remember correctly, this was clarified during ecumenical dialogue with the eastern churches and a joint statement was release to that effect.Not exactly true. Latins meant it in “per Filio” way which is how dogmatically it is defined anyway.
The East and the West approach and explain things differently. I certainly am not saying Christ lacked anything - He lacks nothing. But in the Eastern mindset, saying He took on our fallen humanity in order to heal it does not imply He lacks anything.In Catholic theology, the propensity to sin is a result of the deprivation of sanctifying grace. In this way, to say Christ had the propensity to sin is to say that he was somehow deprived of sanctifying grace until his baptism. How can this be? He is 100% divine and 100% human, but somehow lacking sanctifying grace? How can Jesus lack anything?
Not just allowed to omit it, they are kinda expected to- but that is dependent on what each Sui Iuris Church decides for themselves. For example, Greek Catholic Church of Slovakia considers Filioque to be part of their tradition and unity with Apostolic See as well as Roman Catholics in the country- because while Creed can sound heretical in Greek, it is not the language of this Sui Iuris Church.Edit: the Filioque is a part of our Latin tradition and so it remains in the creed for us, but I believe the Eastern Catholic Churches are allowed to omit the filioque when they say the creed because that is a part of their Eastern tradition.
The hymns for the Feast of Theophany don’t speak to Christ receiving grace through His baptism, but rather that He sanctified the waters of the Jordan and that the triune God was revealed, confirming Jesus as the Son of God:he was somehow deprived of sanctifying grace until his baptism.
I can say the same about the West. At the same time it’s hard to shed some of my Eastern mindset to fully understand certain things of the West that just sound off (even as intellectually I understand they aren’t)There are many many things I appreciate about Eastern theology, but I have a really hard time wrapping my mind around things such as this. It just seems like a contradiction to me.
I’m no theologian. Perhaps I used “divine simplicity” incorrectly.But that is a different argument. Indeed, if Christ being a son does not violate divine simplicity, why the Holy Spirit being a grandson violate divine simplicity?
How about what they added into the Holy Creed then: “ex … Filio”? Why should I not believe that’s what they meant?Not exactly true. Latins meant it in “per Filio” way which is how dogmatically it is defined anyway.
Photius was quite frankly wrong and he was the only father to ever teach such.Wandile:![]()
The Monarchy (“one-rule”) of the Father is not maintained if the Holy Spirit has the Son as (even part of) His source. Saint Photios (ca. 880 A.D.) says:The catholic teaching on filioque looks like :
Father ——> Son ——> Holy Spirit
There is one Spiration not two. The Father and the Son together are one principal not two. The procession of the Holy Spirit is ultimately from the father through the Son (Who is everything the Father is except being the Father and thus has the Spirit of the Father as his own) . Thus monarchy of the Father is maintained as the other two persons in the Godhead find their ultimate origin in the Father. Thus the Son truly has the Holy Spirit proceeding from himself mediately while the Holy Spirit proceeds principally/ultimately from the father. Hence the dogmatic Florentine decree:
If, by begetting the Son, the power was given to the Son that the Holy Spirit would proceed from Him, then how would His Sonship itself not be destroyed when the Son, Who Himself has a source, became the source of Another Who is equal to Him and is of the same nature as He? According to the Filioque teaching, it is impossible to see why the Holy Spirit could not be called a granson!
[/quote]They do have a relationship: they have the same Source (the Father) - somewhat like two siblings, but that’s not the best analogy.The Eastern Orthodox diagram (and teaching) does not show how the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of the Son nor does it show any relation between the Son and the Holy Spirit which is even more problematic.
I would urge you to learn more about this aspect of your faith. It’s the west who have upheld absolute divine simplicity.Wandile:![]()
I’ve never heard before that we don’t believe in Divine Simplicity.In fact the Eastern Orthodox are the ones who have historically taken issue with Divine simplicity held in the west and criticized the west for teaching absolute divine simplicity due to the Eastern Orthodox belief in Palamism which fundamentally destroys divine simplicity.
We Latin Catholics don’t commemorate any of them as far as I’m aware so that’s okay. You guys weren’t at most of them so it would be expected you don’t have a big relationship with them and hence don’t commemorate the latter councils liturgically. Just as the Oriental Catholics would only commemorate 3 ecuemnical councils. Just because we celebrate feats days of some saints liturgically doesn’t mean we don’t consider the others who aren’t commemorated as saints.We only recognize 7 in our liturgical calendar, “lex orandi lex credendi”, the rule of prayer is the rule of belief. So it is up for debate!
ZP
From the council of Florence:tafan2:![]()
I’m no theologian. Perhaps I used “divine simplicity” incorrectly.But that is a different argument. Indeed, if Christ being a son does not violate divine simplicity, why the Holy Spirit being a grandson violate divine simplicity?
How about what they added into the Holy Creed then: “ex … Filio”? Why should I not believe that’s what they meant?Not exactly true. Latins meant it in “per Filio” way which is how dogmatically it is defined anyway.
With all due respect, they are wrong.Most Byzantine Catholics I know, clergy and laity, believe we have only had 7 ecumenical councils.
ZP
Vatican II was called the 21st ecumenical council… if they didn’t believe it so, then why did they attend, participate and sign off on it as the 21st ecumenical council?Lol! They won’t go for that. V-2 expressly states that Eastern Catholics are to return to their ancient ecclesiastical heritage. If Eastern Tradition is 7 councils, then 7 councils it is. Now, I could see Eastern Catholics excepting V2 as ecumenical.
ZP