So you would agree that the Church of Rome has fractures of unity since it is not in communion with the East?
Uh. I don’t follow. Would you say Church has fractures of unity since it is not in communion with Protestants? Obviously Protestants and the Eastern Orthodox are not same in some aspects, but neither of them are in the communion with the Church. In Catholic understanding, people separate from Church, not Church from them. Catholic Church is in full communion with itself. Eastern Orthodoxy can however have ruptures INSIDE their own Church as there exists scenario where A is in communion with B, B with C, but not A with C. That is disunity.
And where do you get this? Sirach 3:2-6, 12-14? Is this the historical context of Sirach, submission to the Pope of Rome?
Read the passage. Same way Pope of Rome has “primacy of honor” before the Bishops, father has “primacy of honor” before the children. Since father has authority over the children, it logically follows that primacy of honor grants authority and hence Pope of Rome has authority over the Bishops.
This is why, in the Orthodox Church, the primate has duties and responsibilities his brother diocesan bishops don’t, they are not subject to him in a subordinate way.
Having responsibility over someone we don’t have authority is weird. You have no way to actually stop them from doing something you are responsible for.
Did Amoris Laetitia reflect the will of all the bishops?
I am not sure about this, but I don’t think it is infallible by any means.
And yet the Pope appoints every single bishop around the world, presumably with no (name removed by moderator)ut from the diocese in question. In the Orthodox Church, the people have to respond “he is worthy; axios, axios, axios” for the newly appointed bishop.
Same in the Catholic Church (Eastern). He also does not appoint every single Bishops… but in Latin Church he just basically checks if it isn’t against his will. Pope can have this right over the Latin Church, correct?
The Orthodox don’t necessarily (ever?) cite that as the reason for the primacy that they recognize in Rome.
Perhaps not post-schism, but pre-schism Rome was called Throne of Peter. Martyrdom of Paul adds to it, yes, but is not the reason for primacy itself
That’s much better than what Vatican 1 said.
Vatican I defined role of the Pope, Vatican II role of the Episcopacy. They do not contradict, they are complementary. Vatican I was still accepted by Eastern Catholics (even Melkites, who did add really cool and good clause into the declaration but signed it anyway). There are no limits on when could Pope act or judge other Bishops (even Patriarchs) in Early Canons.