QUOTE=PeaceInChrist;10052275]I find it unusual that you are advocating the possibility of female ordination, when there is absolutely no evidence to suggest this. Iām sorry, but even Junia as an āapostleā as Paul uses the word does not translate to being an ordained Bishop.
Fair enough. āApostolicā is one mark of the Church. What does that mean?
Also, to be a Catholic in full communion, one must acknowledge that the Church is infallible in faith and morals. This Tradition is dogma. I donāt mean to be uncharitable in pointing this out; I would just like you to think about what exactly you are opposing.
I am only questioning whether female ordination is a matter of faith and morals. Is it? If so, how? I ask because in Latin-based rites, priests canāt get married due to the displine of The Western Church. However, some eastern rites lack this discipline, including churches in union with Rome, such as the Maronite church. As such, clerical celibacy is based on discipline within a given rite, not doctine or dogma.
That the annotation to the New American Bible, which was developed in large part by Catholic scholars, indicates that 1 Corinthians 14: 33b-36 are ā
often considered an interpolation, reflecting the discipline of later churches; such and interpolation would have to have antedated our manuscripts, all of which contain them.ā Thereās a stunning amount of history summed up right there. According to
www.biblequery.org/1cormss.htm, the estimated dates for the earliest manuscripts preserved of 1 Corinthians range from ~200 AD - 3rd-4th century. One scholar estimates the āp46ā manuscript to be dated to the late 1st century (though this seems to be an outlier in estimating such an early date). Taking the oldest manuscripts to be dated from 200-300 AD, that suggests that there was editing to reflect ā
the discsipline of later churchesā occurring prior to that range of dates. Notably, that range overlaps the time periods of the persecutions of Christians by Decius and Valerian (mid-200ās), both of which led to crises in ecclesiology (e.g., Novationist schism).
If the interpolation is truly from later writiers, why did Paul not have this discipline in mind here? Or in Galatians 3:8? We do have to contend with other Biblical verses (inlcuding 1 Corinthians 11ās descriptions of man/woman roles), so Iām not concluding that women should be priests, just trying to have a discussion here.
Also, Iām not just āgoing rogueā here. Asking what my motivation might be will elicit the same response I give when asking myself such questions is terrifying. Because truth cannot contradict truth. I believe that the Church is the repository of truth, and because I cannot turn my eyes from scholarship on topics like evolution, cognitive science, the Documentary Hypothesis, church history. I will not dismiss with a wave of my hand scholarship that challenges my assumptions about the world, and instead go fearfully down the rabbit hole of dealing with how faith and science work together to illuminate fuller truth. Tradition is not static, but moves toward fuller truth believers prayerfully consider new information in their hearts, as
Dei Verbum makes clear.
Iāll respond to the rest of your message as time permits.