Is there any potential in God?

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Ok, so I browsed through Summa Theologica…

After adjusting to severe nosebleeding, I read that it is not possible for natural reason to demonstrate that the world had a beginning (although it is possible to demonstrate that God is the effective cause of the world). I haven’t thought of this! This makes #3 of the above not necessarily true (since creatures could be simultaneously existing with God from all eternity). It is only by faith that we affirm that the world had a beginning.

Therefore, I will read creation in ST first before attempting to go mental. :rotfl:
 
Hi, I was wondering if anyone would assist me in thinking through this:
Assuming God is outside of time (exists timelessly), and assuming the Aristotelian/Thomistic sense of the words “actual” and “potential”.

Is there any potential in God?
I would say that in the context of time, yes, God’s actions “come to be” or “become.” Since pure being alone is fully actual, “be-coming” must therefore at least partake of potentiality. As God is seen to definitively act within the world of time (depending on your religious tradition) it is obvious that therefore a fraction at least of Him “be-comes” and that there must be at least some potential in him. At least relatively speaking. How this relative, temporal localization of God’s essence becomes *subsumed *into pure being, is what I think we need to look at with higher scrutiny.
If yes, He is not pure actuality, but rather has a potential which cannot be actualized outside of time. There must then be some purer actuality to actualize this potential, but that purer actuality too would itself need to have the potential to actualize the less-pure-actuality’s potential. (Leading to an infinite causal regress, which is logically impossible).
I don’t follow your line of reasoning here and am bewildered where the so-called regress erupts. To attempt an answer to your question in brief however, God can still be pure actuality because His essence, in its subsumption of all moments, is eternally situated in transcendence, above time, albeit with localized aspects “appearing” in the fabric of time, immediately out-distanced and out-traversed by God’s having already “scaled” (an imperfect verb, as it implies time) the evolutes produced by time.

In brief, it is a separate question to say whether there is potentiality “in” God and whether God is pure act unmixed with potentiality.

The rest of your post I have no idea how to respond with all due respect. I hope the answer I have provided for you is sufficient to quell your doubts. I am actually no student of Medieval philosophy but am fascinated by the concepts of time and timelessness and enjoy pondering such. Perhaps if anything you can teach me something.
 
Ok, so I browsed through Summa Theologica…

After adjusting to severe nosebleeding, I read that it is not possible for natural reason to demonstrate that the world had a beginning (although it is possible to demonstrate that God is the effective cause of the world). I haven’t thought of this! This makes #3 of the above not necessarily true (since creatures could be simultaneously existing with God from all eternity). It is only by faith that we affirm that the world had a beginning.

Therefore, I will read creation in ST first before attempting to go mental. :rotfl:
Right. Put on your thinking cap. Thomas is facinating. 👍
 
Hi, I was wondering if anyone would assist me in thinking through this:
Assuming God is outside of time (exists timelessly), and assuming the Aristotelian/Thomistic sense of the words “actual” and “potential”.

Is there any potential in God?

If yes, He is not pure actuality, but rather has a potential which cannot be actualized outside of time. There must then be some purer actuality to actualize this potential, but that purer actuality too would itself need to have the potential to actualize the less-pure-actuality’s potential. (Leading to an infinite causal regress, which is logically impossible).

If no and God has no potential: (something in the following list of conclusions must be wrong)
  1. He is purely actual
  2. He likewise has no potential to cause the universe
  3. He then must be actually and timelessly causing the universe
  4. The existence of the universe then must be timeless with Him (although time is an attribute of the universe, it would have a temporal beginning, but not an ontological (existence) beginning in this dilemma)
    **However, **
  5. It is impossible for 2 distinct substances or existences to exist timelessly, for that would imply that they had time or space to differ, or that one lacked what another had, but in order for lacking to occur there must be the potential to make up for that lack, but all things existing timelessly must be fully actual.
I would appreciate it greatly if someone would point out a flaw in this dilemma.

**Please note: Nothing in the above is meant to discourage anyone from following and holding as absolutely true all that Holy Mother Church in Her Magisterium teaches. I am merely asking a question out of my flawed knowledge, and any contradiction between my reasoning and Her teaching is a lacking on my part. **
I have never agreed with the idea that God exist outside of time.
  1. God met us in time and space
  2. The Scripture reveals that God was at rest…then Acted…even if this is a Pure and eternal act…it shows a “change” in mode…and “time” is a measure of change.
  3. We are limited beings and will always be LESS than God…therefore, if God were outside of time…we could never be with Him for an eternity
  4. The Scriptures imply free beings will experience God in Heaven…freedom itself requires potential change and therefore time
  5. God is free
 
St. Thomas Aquinas says that God is pure ACTUALITY. God can neither gain nor lose anything. Pure Actuality possess potentiality. “All that is possible” - is possible for God according to Aquinas. All that is impossible, is impossible for God.
 
The Thomistic sense of potential is the possibility to become another thing right? So that said, God has no potential since he is immutable.

\QUOTE]

God has no potential in the sense God cannot and will never change. God is pure Actuality. What God can “do” with actuality (but does not have to do), is potentiality.
If I have a hammer, I can chose to use it when I want to build something. When I don’t need it or want to use it, I leave it alone - but it is still “available” to me. I always have the potential to use the hammer. My use of the hammer does not change me. I still have the same actuality I had before. God who is Actuality, has in His/Her Actuality - potentiality to use His/Her Actuality.
 
  1. is certainly correct, at least initially. Now that we have defined time, I see that God does not act with time as His backdrop or lack of backdrop, but rather time is like a measurable effect of changes (that is, the effect of going from one state of something, to another state of something.
I’ve just thought of another “proof” that time is not a “backdrop” by which we do something but is actually a relative measure of change.

I am thinking of Einstein’s theory of relativity concerning time dilation. It proposes that if objects travel at significantly different speeds (ex. near the speed of light), the measure of changes between the two objects will be different. For example, in an imaginay experiment where an astronaut travels away from then back to earth near the speed of light, he will actually find his twin brother to be significantly older than him when he returs to earth. There will be a different “time elapsed” between the twins. Further, if something is moving at the speed of light, then in our point of view, that object is “frozen in time.” It is unchanging, while we are changing. It I am not mistaken, time dilation is verified experimentally by super sensitive clocks moving at high speeds.

Come to think of it: when we say we have slept for five minutes more, we are merely saying that we have gained more sleep relative to the minute hand of the clock gaining five more minutes. The measure of time is merely a measure of change relative to a time standard.
 
I’ve just thought of another “proof” that time is not a “backdrop” by which we do something but is actually a relative measure of change.

I am thinking of Einstein’s theory of relativity concerning time dilation. It proposes that if objects travel at significantly different speeds (ex. near the speed of light), the measure of changes between the two objects will be different. For example, in an imaginay experiment where an astronaut travels away from then back to earth near the speed of light, he will actually find his twin brother to be significantly older than him when he returs to earth. There will be a different “time elapsed” between the twins. Further, if something is moving at the speed of light, then in our point of view, that object is “frozen in time.” It is unchanging, while we are changing. It I am not mistaken, time dilation is verified experimentally by super sensitive clocks moving at high speeds.

Come to think of it: when we say we have slept for five minutes more, we are merely saying that we have gained more sleep relative to the minute hand of the clock gaining five more minutes. The measure of time is merely a measure of change relative to a time standard.
I agree, but this does not mean that time (duration between change) does not exist, nor do I think you have claimed this. It simply shows that time may move at different speeds for different people, but for no physical thing may it normally stop (although at the end of time God may make it stop or something, I’m not sure) or move backwards; simply forwards at varying paces.

Thanks again for your patience and time! 🙂
 
Hello again Raikou! Sorry it’s been so long since I last responded, but I’ve had school and other duties to attend to.
Birdmanman: State 1 is a description of all existing things, and so its meaning is part of Truth, and Truth exists, so State 1 is existent in its meaning, it is a universal.

Raikou: What do you mean by existent? As in existent being? A true statement is different from an existent being.

Birdmanman: If, at no state “all the exists” is predicable of God, then at no state is God all that exists (meaning something else besides Him must exist at all states). Thus, there needs to be 1 State in which “all that exists” is predicable of God, and another state in which “all that exists” is not predicable of God, which is a change in God (two mutually exclusive predicables cannot both be attributed to Him at the same state), and so cannot happen. Thus, it must either be that in all states “all that exists” is predicable of God (monism) or at all states “not all that exists” is predicable of God (God + a co-eternal creation).

Raikou: You are confusing predicate to the inherent property of a being. “Loved by my girlfriend” is predicable to me, but that is not my inherent property. If my girlfriend doesn’t love me anymore, it doesn’t mean that I changed, but that she changed.
#4 God never went from a state of Not creating the universe, to a state of creating the universe;
TRUE, but underlying assumption is FALSE. You are introducing here an assumption that creation implies a change of God’s state, as though his actions on creatures implies a change in his inherent properties/substance. This doesn’t follow from your premises but is an entirely new concept. Although it is truthful to conclude that God never underwent a change in state from #1, “state of Not creating the universe” and “state of creating the universe” are not two different states of God BUT merely two different EVENTS distinct from God’s state/substance
#5 thus, God is unchangingly creating the universe, TRUE if you meant God is not changing, as stated from #1 and implied from no change in state in #4
#6 the universe is unchangingly being created by God,FALSE, if you meant that the universe is unchanging during creation. #6 does not follow from #5. In fact, the universe is being changed from a state of “non-existence” to “existence” during creation.
and so the universe is unchanging and timeless in its existence Finally, we see that this is therefore also FALSE, corresponding to what we observe in reality.
I think I see your point. My thought was that a proposition that is true (such as the description proposed for State 1) is a part of Truth, and God is the fullness of Truth, and the Truth changed which is impossible, but the description in State 1 is an incomplete description of the Truth, and a description of State 1 as well as all other truths could be formulated and be a more ‘perfect’ truth than the mere description of State 1, so that Truth will remain unchanged, even though a situation has changed.

And yes, there is a difference between inherent properties, and some changing things that are predicable of something because of an action of something else. Perhaps my flawed point may be better illustrated by the following, without referring to States, but to God’s actions, which, since God is simple, are somehow “a part” of Himself (He has no parts, of course).

A. God is unchangeable
B. Because He is unchangeable, God never changes from being in the act of not creating to being in the act of creating (that is, He never begins an action, since His beginning something in Himself (an action) is a change in Him, Who cannot change).
C. God’s act of creating does not fail to bring about the thing being created (creation).
D. Thus, since God never changes from not-creating to creating the universe, no change and no time occur between the situation in which God, who is unchangeable, is in the act of creating, and the situation in which God and creation both exist.
E. When no change and no time occur between one situation and another situation, those situations are said to occur simultaneously.
F. So, God and His creation exist simultaneously. God never began to create the universe (which would be a change on His part, a change in His action), so the universe never began to be created, and so exists co-eternally with God.

Please note, since God is simple, His Action and His Knowledge are all Him. A change in the action of God is a change in God; God is God’s will, and His will must change from one action to another if a change in His action must occur (the results of His actions are distinct from Him, however). To explain the apparent multitude of actions of God (sustaining the universe, creating it, becoming incarnate), we can call them one real action of God’s love or His being, which has a oneness that we cannot comprehend and must describe using an apparent multitude of actions, in the same way that God’s perfection must be described by us humans as an apparent multitude of perfect attributes or aspects (omniscience, omnipotence, perfect justice, etc.), when it is really one and simple perfection.
 
Ok, so I browsed through Summa Theologica…

After adjusting to severe nosebleeding, I read that it is not possible for natural reason to demonstrate that the world had a beginning (although it is possible to demonstrate that God is the effective cause of the world). I haven’t thought of this! This makes #3 of the above not necessarily true (since creatures could be simultaneously existing with God from all eternity). It is only by faith that we affirm that the world had a beginning.

Therefore, I will read creation in ST first before attempting to go mental. :rotfl:
My argument, which is wrong, would demonstrate that it is impossible for the existence of the universe to have a beginning (although some of the things within the universe itself may have beginnings), and so would contradict something we hold by Faith (also, nothing in our Faith is contradictory to reason, even though it may be unable to be shown by reason alone (like the Trinity or other ‘mysteries’ revealed to us)), which is how I know my thinking is wrong, even though I have such trouble seeing where it is wrong. If our Faith is true, and it is, then we must hold that #3 is false, and creatures do not simultaneously exist with God from all eternity without having a beginning. We do not need to demonstrate this by reason, but we are compelled to say that it is not unreasonable or contradictory to reason to believe this. If my arguments are correct, and they aren’t, then something in Our Faith has been shown absolutely by reason to be false, (which we believe is impossible, and is truly impossible.)
 
I don’t follow your line of reasoning here and am bewildered where the so-called regress erupts. To attempt an answer to your question in brief however, God can still be pure actuality because His essence, in its subsumption of all moments, is eternally situated in transcendence, above time, albeit with localized aspects “appearing” in the fabric of time, immediately out-distanced and out-traversed by God’s having already “scaled” (an imperfect verb, as it implies time) the evolutes produced by time.

In brief, it is a separate question to say whether there is potentiality “in” God and whether God is pure act unmixed with potentiality.
Thanks for participating Psychlo!
In my thinking, an infinite causal regress for the situation I just described erupts as follows:
I. God has a potential which can be actualized. (This is false, but is assumed for the sake of the argument)
II. It is impossible for a potential to actualize itself, but a cause must actualize it.
III. The cause that actualizes a potential must be itself actual, and not potential. (otherwise that cause doesn’t really exist, but only exists as a potential cause, it only might exist).
IV. An actual cause actualizes this potential that God has; this cause would then need to be either (X). some distinct ‘part’ of God that is actual and not potential, or (Y). some other (non-temporally) prior cause that isn’t God but is actual and not potential, a “super-God” or “meta-God”. (by prior I mean higher in the chain of causality, not further back in time).
V. (X). and/or (Y) Are either purely actual, or are some mixture of actual or potential.
VI. If (X) and/or (Y) are some mixture of actual and potential then they themselves need an actual part of themselves (XX), or a distinct (non-temporally) prior actual cause (YY) to actualize their potential.
VII. (XX) and/or (YY) must themselves either be purely actual, or some mixture of actual or potential.
VIII. If (XX) and/or (YY) are some mixture of actual or potential, then they themselves need an actual part of themselves (XXX) or a distinct (non-temporally) prior actual cause (YYY) to actualize their potential.
IX. Steps V through VIII repeat as many times as you like, but not infinitely (or else an infinite causal regress occurs, where every part needs another part needs another part (ad infinitum) or every distinction (nontemporally) prior actual cause needs another distinct prior actual cause needs another distinct prior actual cause (ad infinitium).
X. Eventually, then, you must arrive at a “part” (Xprime) and/or a distinct, (non-temporally) prior actual cause (Yprime) that are themselves entirely actual, and have no mixture of potentiality in them.
XI. Let this fully and purely actual ‘part’ or ‘cause’, which has within it no potential to be actualized, be called “God-prime”.

Change my statement that you disagreed with originally to say instead:
"Is there any potential in God-prime? If yes, God-prime is not pure actuality, but rather has a potential which cannot be actualized outside of time. There must then be some purer actuality to actualize this potential, but that purer actuality too would itself need to have the potential to actualize the less-pure-actuality’s potential. (Leading to an infinite causal regress, which is logically impossible).
To any readers, please note: The above explanation was purely hypothetical, there is no higher God, and God is the highest being and is pure actuality, and has no parts in His substance, but is simple. All that the Church in Her Magisterium teaches as a matter of Faith regarding God is true, and nothing I say above is correct if it contradicts any of Her infallible teaching.
 
Hello Jkiernan, thanks for participating in this thread! 🙂
St. Thomas Aquinas says that God is pure ACTUALITY. God can neither gain nor lose anything. Pure Actuality possess potentiality. “All that is possible” - is possible for God according to Aquinas. All that is impossible, is impossible for God.
This might be where I am mistaken! But, if you can, could you explain how pure actuality can posses potentiality? To me this sounds like saying “that which has only and purely water, also has milk”. That is, if something is purely actual, all things it ‘could have done’ it has ‘already’ done, but if something has potential, then it ‘could do’ something, that is, it has the potential to do something. So, my coffee is actually lukewarm, but has the potential, with time and the effects of thermo-dynamics or whatever process, to become cold, or frozen, or boiling. If my lukewarm coffee was fully actual, it would have no admixture of potential, and so could not become cold or frozen or boiling. That is, no change could occur in my coffee, for no change is potential for it since it is fully actual. Now, if my coffee cannot change, then it cannot ‘have’ potential or possibility; it cannot go from a state of being coffee in a mug to a state of being coffee poured on someone’s head, it cannot go from a state of not-growing-bacteria to a state of growing-bacteria, for it has no potential to grow bacteria if it is fully actual and, as a part of its full actuality, is in a state of not-growing-bacteria.
God has no potential in the sense God cannot and will never change. God is pure Actuality. What God can “do” with actuality (but does not have to do), is potentiality.
If I have a hammer, I can chose to use it when I want to build something. When I don’t need it or want to use it, I leave it alone - but it is still “available” to me. I always have the potential to use the hammer. My use of the hammer does not change me. I still have the same actuality I had before. God who is Actuality, has in His/Her Actuality - potentiality to use His/Her Actuality.
I think this makes it all the clearer that at least part of my misunderstanding lies in what I think “purely actual” means; is it no true that something that is purely actual has no potential? Potential to do something is a potential that something might have, and so since that which is purely actual has no potential, that which is purely actual also has no potential to do something. It must be ‘doing’ something actually, as a ‘part’ of its actuality, and cannot change from not-doing-something to doing-something, as that would imply real change in something fully and purely actual and immutable. Is this not correct? I am trying to find where I am wrong, so I hope you understand I am not trying to guarantee the information I present to you, and hope you know that anywhere something I say might contradict Church teaching, I say it out of ignorance and do not mean to teach it as true, as I do not hold as true anything that is contradictory to Church teaching. (I normally am not that redundant, but I want to be very clear lest I mislead some poor forum-goer who thinks my misunderstanding and questioning is teaching and fact, which it certainly is not wherever it contradicts the Church’s infallible teachings).
 
Linusthe2nd, I know I have just cooked up a batch of responses, and I hope you do not think I am ignoring you on purpose; I think I have given enough material in my past few posts for you to work with and hopefully correct if you wish, but I would like to make sure you know I have read (or at least, will read) your posts. Thanks for your patience and time!
 
Thanks for participating Psychlo!
Your very welcome. 🙂
In my thinking, an infinite causal regress for the situation I just described erupts as follows:
I. God has a potential which can be actualized. (This is false, but is assumed for the sake of the argument)
II. It is impossible for a potential to actualize itself, but a cause must actualize it.
III. The cause that actualizes a potential must be itself actual, and not potential. (otherwise that cause doesn’t really exist, but only exists as a potential cause, it only might exist).
IV. An actual cause actualizes this potential that God has; this cause would then need to be either (X). some distinct ‘part’ of God that is actual and not potential, or (Y). some other (non-temporally) prior cause that isn’t God but is actual and not potential, a “super-God” or “meta-God”. (by prior I mean higher in the chain of causality, not further back in time).
V. (X). and/or (Y) Are either purely actual, or are some mixture of actual or potential.
VI. If (X) and/or (Y) are some mixture of actual and potential then they themselves need an actual part of themselves (XX), or a distinct (non-temporally) prior actual cause (YY) to actualize their potential.
VII. (XX) and/or (YY) must themselves either be purely actual, or some mixture of actual or potential.
VIII. If (XX) and/or (YY) are some mixture of actual or potential, then they themselves need an actual part of themselves (XXX) or a distinct (non-temporally) prior actual cause (YYY) to actualize their potential.
IX. Steps V through VIII repeat as many times as you like, but not infinitely (or else an infinite causal regress occurs, where every part needs another part needs another part (ad infinitum) or every distinction (nontemporally) prior actual cause needs another distinct prior actual cause needs another distinct prior actual cause (ad infinitium).
X. Eventually, then, you must arrive at a “part” (Xprime) and/or a distinct, (non-temporally) prior actual cause (Yprime) that are themselves entirely actual, and have no mixture of potentiality in them.
XI. Let this fully and purely actual ‘part’ or ‘cause’, which has within it no potential to be actualized, be called “God-prime”.

Change my statement that you disagreed with originally to say instead:

“Is there any potential in God-prime? If yes, God-prime is not pure actuality, but rather has a potential which cannot be actualized outside of time. There must then be some purer actuality to actualize this potential, but that purer actuality too would itself need to have the potential to actualize the less-pure-actuality’s potential. (Leading to an infinite causal regress, which is logically impossible).”

To any readers, please note: The above explanation was purely hypothetical, there is no higher God, and God is the highest being and is pure actuality, and has no parts in His substance, but is simple. All that the Church in Her Magisterium teaches as a matter of Faith regarding God is true, and nothing I say above is correct if it contradicts any of Her infallible teaching.
If I understand correctly (which I probably don’t) I don’t see why God-prime, or the primary aspect of God can’t be the original "domino"or source of all consequent actions… Subsequent actions later in the causal chain must be imprinted or “set-upon” by the contingencies of temporality, but nonetheless they still have this eternal “interface” linking the relative with the absolute worlds.

Hope that makes sense. I am unfortunately not much of a syllogistic type of guy, but I like to ramble on. 😛
 
I agree, but this does not mean that time (duration between change) does not exist, nor do I think you have claimed this. It simply shows that time may move at different speeds for different people, but for no physical thing may it normally stop (although at the end of time God may make it stop or something, I’m not sure) or move backwards; simply forwards at varying paces.

Thanks again for your patience and time! 🙂
Yes. If I am not mistaken, it is not possible for any physical object to reach the speed of light because it would contract and its mass would disappear (length contraction).
 
Hello again Raikou! Sorry it’s been so long since I last responded, but I’ve had school and other duties to attend to.

A. God is unchangeable
B. Because He is unchangeable, God never changes from being in the act of not creating to being in the act of creating (that is, He never begins an action, since His beginning something in Himself (an action) is a change in Him, Who cannot change).
C. God’s act of creating does not fail to bring about the thing being created (creation).
D. Thus, since God never changes from not-creating to creating the universe, no change and no time occur between the situation in which God, who is unchangeable, is in the act of creating, and the situation in which God and creation both exist.
E. When no change and no time occur between one situation and another situation, those situations are said to occur simultaneously.
F. So, God and His creation exist simultaneously. God never began to create the universe (which would be a change on His part, a change in His action), so the universe never began to be created, and so exists co-eternally with God.
Sorry, I have to sleep now so I won’t be able to consider the entirety of your post.

Time is relative to the observer. We cannot mix up observations of one observer and the other for these are different. I suggest that you clarify to whose observation or point of reference were your arguments made.

To the point of view of God, all events in history are present to him simultaneously - as if all changes elapses in no time at all.

To the point of view of human observers, history unfolds in succession.

Bye for now. Gotta sleep. 🙂
 
God is purely potential, and everything actualized is the result of the intent of God.
I don’t understand how God can purely potential. Till now I had no doubt that God is pure act. How come God has potency. Doesn’t it mean that God is imperfect for he has the potency to be actualized? If God is pure potency (like primary matter) how can he act by his own? I find it difficult to understand God in the same terms of primary matter which is a only a body in potency. A thing in potency doesn’t have existance. But if he is pure act, everything is actualised in him and he is perfect. I think, we possess imperfection because we have many potentialities which are not actualised. I am not well versed in this, but I need a clarification.
 
I don’t understand how God can purely potential. Till now I had no doubt that God is pure act. How come God has potency. Doesn’t it mean that God is imperfect for he has the potency to be actualized? If God is pure potency (like primary matter) how can he act by his own? I find it difficult to understand God in the same terms of primary matter which is a only a body in potency. A thing in potency doesn’t have existance. But if he is pure act, everything is actualised in him and he is perfect. I think, we possess imperfection because we have many potentialities which are not actualised. I am not well versed in this, but I need a clarification.
The short answer to all your questions is: because he is God.

But that sounds like a cop-out, I’m sure. You said: *A thing in potency doesn’t have existance. *

Where doesn’t it? In Time/space? These definitions are based in experience in the material world.

But let’s talk about potency. Do you think a frozen popsicle has calories? It doesn’t. Calories are a measure of heat. But you rarely find a food for sale that doesn’t have a label with the calories in it, regardless of it’s temperature. The label tells you the potential of the food to be used that can result in heat.

Now we take the person standing in the pool creating the not-person, not-water, definable area. The person doesn’t change, the person doesn’t act except to be in the water, but after that just stands. Yet, they create the definable area. And that area is maintained moment to moment by their presence. That area can cease to exist by the action of the person, or change shape and area by the action of the person while they also maintain the area that exists, even though it is not water, person or vacuum.

Applying these concepts to God is like saying that train tracks can’t be touching the ground because the ground is curved and they are straight and so they cannot be fully in contact. But if we know more about the nature of the things we see we are wrong.

There is no potential outside of God. Anywhere. God is the actualization of all things. God is the way things work.
 
I don’t understand how God can purely potential. Till now I had no doubt that God is pure act. How come God has potency. Doesn’t it mean that God is imperfect for he has the potency to be actualized? If God is pure potency (like primary matter) how can he act by his own? I find it difficult to understand God in the same terms of primary matter which is a only a body in potency. A thing in potency doesn’t have existance. But if he is pure act, everything is actualised in him and he is perfect. I think, we possess imperfection because we have many potentialities which are not actualised. I am not well versed in this, but I need a clarification.
Don’t be troubled. You are right. God is unchanging and unchangeable, He is Pure Act. He created the universe and all in it and continues to work in it. What is happening in this thread is a couple of kids " gassing. " They don’t know what they are talking about. Stick to the Catechism and Thomas Aquinas.i
 
I don’t understand how God can purely potential. Till now I had no doubt that God is pure act. How come God has potency. Doesn’t it mean that God is imperfect for he has the potency to be actualized? If God is pure potency (like primary matter) how can he act by his own? I find it difficult to understand God in the same terms of primary matter which is a only a body in potency. A thing in potency doesn’t have existance. But if he is pure act, everything is actualised in him and he is perfect. I think, we possess imperfection because we have many potentialities which are not actualised. I am not well versed in this, but I need a clarification.
Don’t be troubled. You are right. God is Pure Act, unchanging and unchangeable. He created the universe and continues to work in it, causing its activity, sustaining it, and directing it.

What is happening in this thread is that a few kids are having fun " gassing. " They don’t know what they are talking about. Stick to the catechism and Thomas Aquinas and you will be safe and free from error. Apparantly that isn’t enough for some people. 👍
 
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