Is there any special process needed for an Eastern Rite Catholic to marry a Latin Rite Catholic?

[ByzCathCantor]

My understanding is that marriage is one of two sacraments, along with baptism, which can be performed by lay people.

Really? How did you come to understand this (at least with respect to marriage)?

 

[Vico]

For validity the celebration of marriage must be blessed by a priest, however, not always immediately. So it seems that the marriage may actually be valid for a time, before it is blessed.

CCEO Canon 832

1. If one cannot have present or have access to a priest who is competent according to the norm of law without grave inconvenience, those intending to celebrate a true marriage can validly and licitly celebrate it before witnesses alone:

(1) in danger of death;
(2) outside the danger of death, as long as it is prudently foreseen that such circumstances will continue for a month.

1. In either case, if another priest, even a non-Catholic one, is able to be present, inasmuch as it is possible he is to be called so that he can bless the marriage, without prejudice for the validity of a marriage in the presence only of the witnesses.
2. If a marriage was celebrated in the presence only of witnesses, the spouses shall not neglect to receive the blessing of the marriage from a priest as soon as possible.

Canon 834

1. The form for the celebration of marriage prescribed by law is to be observed if at least one of the parties celebrating the marriage was baptized in the Catholic Church or was received into it.
2. If, however, a Catholic party enrolled in some Eastern Church celebrates a marriage with one who belongs to an Eastern non-Catholic Church, the form for the celebration of marriage prescribed by law is to be observed only for liceity; for validity, however, the blessing of a priest is required, while observing the other requirements of law.

Canon 835

Dispensation from the form for the celebration of marriage required by law is reserved to the Apostolic See or the patriarch, who will not grant it except for a most grave reason.

 

[ByzCathCantor]

However, since there is no mortal sin in the East, I guess it wouldn’t matter if the people were validly married or not.

While the term “mortal sin” may not be used in Eastern terminology, the notion of “grave sin” is roughly analogous and refers to that which separates us from God. This concept is of paramount importance to Eastern Catholics.

And the notion of validity of the mystery (sacrament) of marriage is indeed of equal importance in the Eastern rites, as emphasized in several posts in this thread.

Are you saying that because we don’t use the term mortal sin, we in the East can be sinners in sinful or otherwise invalid unions without consequence?

It’s not certain what you may be suggesting here …

 

[wjp984]

While the term “mortal sin” may not be used in Eastern terminology, the notion of “grave sin” is roughly analogous and refers to that which separates us from God. This concept is of paramount importance to Eastern Catholics.

And the notion of validity of the mystery (sacrament) of marriage is indeed of equal importance in the Eastern rites, as emphasized in several posts in this thread.

Are you saying that because we don’t use the term mortal sin, we in the East can be sinners in sinful or otherwise invalid unions without consequence?

It’s not certain what you may be suggesting here …

Well the poster above you answered my question so I will leave it at that.

 

[Dakota_Roberts]

Just to have fun with some technicalities.

My understanding is that marriage is one of two sacraments, along with baptism, which can be performed by lay people. This makes sense, since really, baptism is the only sacrament/mystery absolutely essential and according to western theology, two people need to be validly married or they can be living in mortal sin. So in a situation without priests those two mysteries would still be necessary.

However, since there is no mortal sin in the East, I guess it wouldn’t matter if the people were validly married or not. (I’m thinking mainly of the show LOST when they are stuck on the island. Although no one to my knowledge gets married, this thread made me think of that possibility.)

Mortal sin has an Eastern counter part just like pretty much every term such as transubstantiation and trinity

 

[Vico]

So there is no obstacle in the matter of a Latin Rite Catholic marrying a Catholic from another rite.
The only thing needed is a clarification on how Matrimony is to be carried out to accomodate for both rites, correct?

The marriage must meet the canonical requirements of both of the Catholics (Latin and eastern here) and since the two codes have differences in impediments and form for validity, it may not be possible for a Latin to marry an eastern even where it would be possible for a Latin to marry another Latin in the same condition.