Is there error in the Bible?

[sidbrown]

Is there error in the Bible?

1. In 1893, Pope Leo XIII issued his major biblical encyclical, Providentissimus Deus, in which he affirmed that “God, speaking by the sacred writers, could not set down anything but what was true”
2. In 1920, Pope Benedict XV in his encyclical marking the 15th century of the death of St. Jerome, Spiritus Paraclitus, continued Pope Leo’s teaching: “Divine inspiration extends to every part of the Bible without the slightest exception and no error can occur in the inspired text”
3. The Second Vatican Council repeated this teaching in Dei Verbum (Dogmatic Constitution on Divine Revelation): “Since therefore, all that the inspired authors or sacred writers affirm should be regarded as affirmed by the Holy Spirit, we must acknowledge that the books of Scripture, firmly, faithfully and without error, teach that truth which God, for the sake of our salvation, wished to see confided to sacred Scripture”
4. The Catechism of the Catholic Church: “God is the author of sacred Scripture because He inspired its human authors; He acts in them and by means of them. He thus gives assurance that their writings teach without error His saving truth”

Although it is affirmed that there is no error in the Bible, here is an example of an error from the Catholic Douay Rheims version:
Fourth Book of Kings 8: 26 Ochozias was two and twenty years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem.
Second Book Of Paralipomenon, chapter 22: 2 Ochozias was forty-two years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem

 

[CatholicGuy22]

Great question! To bad i don’t know.

 

[thistle]

Is there error in the Bible?

1. In 1893, Pope Leo XIII issued his major biblical encyclical, Providentissimus Deus, in which he affirmed that “God, speaking by the sacred writers, could not set down anything but what was true”
2. In 1920, Pope Benedict XV in his encyclical marking the 15th century of the death of St. Jerome, Spiritus Paraclitus, continued Pope Leo’s teaching: “Divine inspiration extends to every part of the Bible without the slightest exception and no error can occur in the inspired text”
3. The Second Vatican Council repeated this teaching in Dei Verbum (Dogmatic Constitution on Divine Revelation): “Since therefore, all that the inspired authors or sacred writers affirm should be regarded as affirmed by the Holy Spirit, we must acknowledge that the books of Scripture, firmly, faithfully and without error, teach that truth which God, for the sake of our salvation, wished to see confided to sacred Scripture”
4. The Catechism of the Catholic Church: “God is the author of sacred Scripture because He inspired its human authors; He acts in them and by means of them. He thus gives assurance that their writings teach without error His saving truth”

Although it is affirmed that there is no error in the Bible, here is an example of an error from the Catholic Douay Rheims version:
Fourth Book of Kings 8: 26 Ochozias was two and twenty years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem.
Second Book Of Paralipomenon, chapter 22: 2 Ochozias was forty-two years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem

1. and 4. above seem to contradict 1. and 2.
2. and 2. in my opinion are saying there can be no errors of any kind (even those which have no bearing on any truth relating to our salvation) whereas 3. and 4. seem to be saying that there can be no errors in anything relating to truths relating to our salvation but they don’t apply to other matters.

 

[Ignatius]

The bible is inerrant with regard to matters concerning salvation.

 

[spockrates]

… Although it is affirmed that there is no error in the Bible, here is an example of an error from the Catholic Douay Rheims version:
Fourth Book of Kings 8: 26 Ochozias was two and twenty years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem.
Second Book Of Paralipomenon, chapter 22: 2 Ochozias was forty-two years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem

From what I understand, there are errors in translation regarding numbers. These are errors in translation (in the example you gave, mistaking the words twenty-two for forty-two). Errors in translation do not appear to affect any doctrines of the Catholic faith, however.

 

[sidbrown]

From what I understand, there are errors in translation regarding numbers. These are errors in translation (in the example you gave, mistaking the words twenty-two for forty-two). Errors in translation do not appear to affect any doctrines of the Catholic faith, however.

Are you sure that this is a translation error? I don;t think that you can assume that this error is due to translation. For one thing,m does it not appear in all translations to date?

 

[spockrates]

Are you sure that this is a translation error? I don;t think that you can assume that this error is due to translation. For one thing,m does it not appear in all translations to date?

True. It’s likely a very early transmission error, not necessarily an early translation error. That is, an error made very early when making a copy of one of the earliest original manuscripts. It’s not as serious as an error effecting an important doctrinal belief, I think.

 

[Major_Tom]

Well, here’s one:

Matthew, 12:40. “For Jonah remained in the belly of the sea-monster for 3 days and 3 nights, so will the Son of man be in the heart of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights.”

 

[JJ59]

See these two links:

tektonics.org/TK-2KIN.html
tektonics.org/af/copyisterrors.html

God bless,

 

[peary1]

Is there error in the Bible?

1. In 1893, Pope Leo XIII issued his major biblical encyclical, Providentissimus Deus, in which he affirmed that “God, speaking by the sacred writers, could not set down anything but what was true”
2. In 1920, Pope Benedict XV in his encyclical marking the 15th century of the death of St. Jerome, Spiritus Paraclitus, continued Pope Leo’s teaching: “Divine inspiration extends to every part of the Bible without the slightest exception and no error can occur in the inspired text”
3. The Second Vatican Council repeated this teaching in Dei Verbum (Dogmatic Constitution on Divine Revelation): “Since therefore, all that the inspired authors or sacred writers affirm should be regarded as affirmed by the Holy Spirit, we must acknowledge that the books of Scripture, firmly, faithfully and without error, teach that truth which God, for the sake of our salvation, wished to see confided to sacred Scripture”
4. The Catechism of the Catholic Church: “God is the author of sacred Scripture because He inspired its human authors; He acts in them and by means of them. He thus gives assurance that their writings teach without error His saving truth”

Although it is affirmed that there is no error in the Bible, here is an example of an error from the Catholic Douay Rheims version:
Fourth Book of Kings 8: 26 Ochozias was two and twenty years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem.
Second Book Of Paralipomenon, chapter 22: 2 Ochozias was forty-two years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem

It’s all summed up by the Second Vatican Council: "Since therefore, all that the inspired authors or sacred writers affirm should be regarded as affirmed by the Holy Spirit, we must acknowledge that the books of Scripture, firmly, faithfully and without error, teach that truth which God, for the sake of our salvation, wished to see confided to sacred Scripture"

Whether Ochozias was 22 or 42 years of age and ruled one year in Jerusalem has nothing to do with our salvation in Christ. When the popes write their encyclicals on Scripture, please keep in mind that they are not proposing a total and literal translation of the Bible but the Truth of our salvation.

And the inhabitants of Jerusalem made Ochozias his youngest son king in his place: for the rovers of the Arabians, who had broke in upon the camp, had killed all that were his elder brothers. So Ochozias the son of Joram king of Juda reigned. 2 Ochozias was forty-two years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem, and the name of his mother was Athalia the daughter of Amri. (Chronicles 22:1-2)

 

[sidbrown]

See these two links:

tektonics.org/TK-2KIN.html
tektonics.org/af/copyisterrors.html

God bless,

The references indicate a copyist error. And others here say that there is not error in Scripture as pertains to salvation. But take another example, which is that slaves should be subject to their masters. Would that not be an error? For example, suppose that an African woman and her daughter were enslaved by a European white man. Why should she be required to be subject to her master, the slave owner? Would she not have the moral right to escape with her child from this life of slavery?

 

[Petergee]

1. and 4. above seem to contradict 1. and 2.
2. and 2. in my opinion are saying there can be no errors of any kind (even those which have no bearing on any truth relating to our salvation) whereas 3. and 4. seem to be saying that there can be no errors in anything relating to truths relating to our salvation but they don’t apply to other matters.

No they do not contradict. The additional comments in 3 & 4 do not restrict the truth which was stated in 1 & 2. The Vatican II Fathers would not and could not have proclaimed a universal doctrine which contradicted a unibversal doctrine proclaimed by previous Popes. There are no errors in the Bible.

 

[Petergee]

Well, here’s one:

Matthew, 12:40. “For Jonah remained in the belly of the sea-monster for 3 days and 3 nights, so will the Son of man be in the heart of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights.”

This is true, if you count the way that the ancients did. There are no errors in the Bible.

 

[sidbrown]

There are no errors in the Bible.

I think that there is an error in morality or ethics in the Bible, becasue I think it is OK for an African woman and her child to escape from there white European male slaveowner and not subject herself and her children to her slavemasters.

 

[Petergee]

The references indicate a copyist error. And others here say that there is not error in Scripture as pertains to salvation. But take another example, which is that slaves should be subject to their masters. Would that not be an error? For example, suppose that an African woman and her daughter were enslaved by a European white man. Why should she be required to be subject to her master, the slave owner? Would she not have the moral right to escape with her child from this life of slavery?

That is not an error. St Paul’s advice to the first-century inhabitants of Ephesus and Colossae is not intended to apply with “slavish” literalism to all peoples of all times. The message of Christ is not that of a Spartacist political insurrection. The Greek word in 1 Peter 2:18, odune, means hired servants.

 

[sidbrown]

That is not an error. St Paul’s advice to the first-century inhabitants of Ephesus and Colossae is not intended to apply with “slavish” literalism to all peoples of all times. The message of Christ is not that of a Spartacist political insurrection. The Greek word in 1 Peter 2:18, odune, means hired servants.

I would say that just as it is a moral error to require an African woman to be subject to her white European male slavemaster, so too it is a moral error to require any slave to be subject to his master. Slaves should have thier freedom just like anyone else.

 

[Petergee]

Although it is affirmed that there is no error in the Bible, here is an example of an error from the Catholic Douay Rheims version:
Fourth Book of Kings 8: 26 Ochozias was two and twenty years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem.
Second Book Of Paralipomenon, chapter 22: 2 Ochozias was forty-two years old when he began to reign, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem

See apologeticspress.org/articles/547

various ancient manuscripts such as the Syriac, the Arabic, at least one Hebrew manuscript, and a few of the Septuagint manuscripts—all of which contain the correct ages for these kings in 2 Chronicles (22 and 18 rather than 42 and 8). Based upon this evidence, and from the fact that the ages of Ahaziah and Jehoiachin given in the Massoretic text of Chronicles are incorrect, the translators of the NIV decided to translate 2 Chronicles 22:2 and 36:9 as “twenty-two” and “eighteen” rather than the way most other English versions of the Bible read (“forty-two” and “eight”).

 

[Petergee]

I would say that just as it is a moral error to require an African woman to be subject to her white European male slavemaster, so too it is a moral error to require any slave to be subject to his master. Slaves should have thier freedom just like anyone else.

And thanks to the Church, slavery was eventually abolished. Starting with the Apostles urging masters to treat their slaves kindly (as many did) and to treat them as brothers. And raising money to free slaves. But imagine for a moment what would be the result if the Apostles, already running an illegal organisation, simply urged slaves to run away from their masters (usually pagans) and destroy the political and economic fabric of society overnight.

 

[sidbrown]

And thanks to the Church, slavery was eventually abolished. Starting with the Apostles urging masters to treat their slaves kindly (as many did) and to treat them as brothers. And raising money to free slaves. But imagine for a moment what would be the result if the Apostles, already running an illegal organisation, simply urged slaves to run away from their masters (usually pagans) and destroy the political and economic fabric of society overnight.

St. Paul urged slaves to be subject to their masters and the papal bull Dum Diversas issued on June 18, 1452 by Pope Nicholas V, is credited by some with starting the West African slave trade…
Isn’t it morally wrong to require slaves to be subject to their slavemasters?

 

[Petergee]

St. Paul urged slaves to be subject to their masters and the papal bull Dum Diversas issued on June 18, 1452 by Pope Nicholas V, is credited by some with starting the West African slave trade…

If so, “some” are indulging in anti-Catholic bigotry and ignorance of the historical context. The bull concerns only Portugal vis-a-vis the Moslem soldiers from whom it had just recently won its independence after 750 years of violent and oppressive subjugation. The “slavery” authorised is similar to the current treatment of POWs by the USA. The Moslems were about to conquer mighty Constantinople, and Rome was next on their list. For the next 250 years it was a real possibility that Moslems would conquer all Christendom. And Moslems had captured and enslaved millions of innocent non-combatant Christians for 800 years and would continue to do so to millions more for the next 400 years.

All slavery is not equal; the Church has always condemned racial and chattel slavery and trading in slaves. i.e. the type of slavery practised in America. Also note that there were millions of white slaves in America. Many of these were Catholics sentenced to slavery for their religious beliefs. They suffered even more terribly than the black slaves, dying at horrific rates from tropical diseases. They were even despised by their fellow black slaves who derided them as “redlegs” or “rednecks” due to their constant severe sunburn.

Isn’t it morally wrong to require slaves to be subject to their slavemasters?

Not in the context in which St Paul wrote to the Colossians and Ephesians. And he doesn’t “require” them to do so, he is encouraging them to obey legitimate authority. Most of these slaves were working to pay off a debt or as punishment for a crime, similar to modern indentures or community service orders, or the private use of convict labour in colonial Australia.