P
Prodigal_Son
Guest
Suppose no testing whatsoever. Seeing a woman take the drug daily and subsequently miscarry (in, say, the 2nd trimester) is circumstantial evidence. If you saw two such women miscarry, you would have reason to believe the drug was the cause, despite the lack of experiments. I do not claim that you *know *anything, only that you have reasons to believe (evidence).I am afraid this leads off to a tangent. First, what kind of circumstantial evidence is there? The drug was either tested, or not. If it was tested, it was already an experiment, which is an indication that the drug had undesirable side effect. After all, one cannot know if the drug has side-effects without some kind of experimentation.
Very few such studies, if any, have been done with pregnant women. I suspect it is because people believe it would be unethical (perhaps even legislators). Our laws do not respect the theory that having a person’s informed consent permits you to harm that person.Second, such an experiment is only unethical, if the patient is exposed to it without her informed consent. Many times these trials are conducted on a test group, and as long as the patients are informed of the risk, and they consent to be exposed to the risk, there are no ethical problems.