1 John 3:4
“…sin is the transgression of the law.”
Which ‘law’ might it be transgressing?
sin : 266. hamartia : offense, sin, sinful.
From hamartano; a sin (properly abstract) – offence, sin(-ful).
http://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/266.htm
transgression : 458. anomia From anomos; illegality, i.e. Violation of law or (genitive case) wickedness – iniquity, X transgress(-ion of) the law, unrighteousness.
http://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/458.htm
the word Law is not used in this verse. Rather the term ‘without law’, or anomia, is used. So maybe it can be understood as, sin is the transgression of the law, or sin is to be ‘without law’??
But we all know that we have all sinned and that there is none that is without sin…
But those that ‘willfully’ and those that ‘unwillingly’ are separate.
Do I cause misfortune, or evil, towards another because I am unwillingly weak?
Or do I cause misfortune, or evil, towards another because I willfully desire to?
Do I willfully seek out other’s ‘faults and shortcomings’ to use it against them?
Or do I unwilling discover something that I have to be wise with and surrender it unto God?