Is Voting for a Pro-Choicer a Mortal Sin?

  • Thread starter Thread starter JoeyWarren
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Is Voting for a Pro-Choicer a Mortal Sin?
If there are two candidates- one pro-life, one pro-choice, it is a mortal sin to vote for the pro-choice candidate based on that. If one candidate is unqualified for the job, or will cause serious problems for those of us who have already been born, but is against abortion, and the other candidate is pro choice (or indifferent on the issue), then I would suggest people abstain from voting.
 
Finally, it is not contrary to their oath to promote legislation that has previously been determined unconstitutional or is apparently unconstitutional. For instance, Joe can support legislation that removes our right to a jury trial. In fact a majority of both houses and the President are free to support it without a breach of their oath. They just can’t take action to universally deny jury trials. It is the job of the Supreme Court to determine whether any law passed is Consitutional.
I actually disagree with you there. I think that a member of Congress is bound by his oath not to support legislation which is clearly unconstitutional. Now, this is different from proposing legislation that would change the Constitution itself, or that would “nip at the edges” of a “right” which is wrongfully deemed to be Constitutionally protected. The Supreme Court may be the ultimate decision maker as to what passes Constitutional muster, but it is not the only branch of our government that is sworn to protect the Constitution against all enemies.
 
This would accomplish little since the Pledge of Allegiance has not legal effect on the “right” to an abortion. Also, those who disagree with the proposed change would simply not say it.
If “Born, Unborn” had been added to the “Pledge of Allegience” when “Under God” was added, do you think there would have been a “Roe vs Wade”?
 
If “Born, Unborn” had been added to the “Pledge of Allegience” when “Under God” was added, do you think there would have been a “Roe vs Wade”?
Yes. Roe v. Wade is the result of a Supreme Court determined to legislate by discovering heretofore unknown Constitutional “rights” as opposed to applying and interpreting the Constitution. The Pledge of Allegiance has nothing to do with it.
 
I love it that there are so many idealistic and optimistic Catholics out there. I really think if we show our unity we will be taken seriously.

But back to the OP question, can we REALLY say we have committed a sin by our vote? Could it be equally said that we committed a sin by NOT voting? How close to the sin of abortion are we by voting? Is the person we’re voting for going to have or perform an abortion, or has he in the past? No. Is he going to institute a law to make abortion legal? Nope, too late. The SC somehow found it in the Constitution (though somehow missed the words ‘Right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness’). So what we’re looking for is somebody who is morally similar to our morals, right? Religious affiliation is not important as long as they back our agenda. Ok, so we did that…now what? What if he doesn’t act? Do we expect him to run right over to DC and end abortion? How many have we already sent? How many OTHER atrocities have they done INSTEAD in our name? Many ‘pro-life’ candidates are also pro-death penalty, pro-cloning, pro-euthanasia, pro-embryonic stem cell, where do we draw our boundaries? It’s as strange to say we have committed a sin for voting for a pro-choice candidate as it is to say we are also sinning when our pro-life candidate does any of the other 1000s of unsavory things politicians do.

I think that’s why the Church stated it’s a sin if that’s the ONLY reason you voted for them–you are pro-choice yourself, in other words.

For the record, I am militantly pro-life. I just don’t want to be prescribing sin where none exists.
 
The bolded part is troublesome. The pro-life cause is about saving babies period. A candidate who doesn’t win can’t save any babies. In the example, I gave on my last post such a statement would fail.
Actually, he can, because he can say, “I got this many votes, meaning that this many people in this riding are pro-life,” and he can use those numbers to get funding for pro-life agencies that work to educate the rest of the population.

Remember, a politician does not have to be elected to office to get work done; he just has to know what his mandate is and where it is coming from. Obviously if he does not get elected, he will not get as much work done, but if he has a significant following, he can still do quite a bit.
We need to exercise prudence. *If a week *before an election a candidate is at 10% in polls, that candidate is not going to win. If there is a lesser pro-life candidate with a chance of beating a profoundly pro-abortion candidate, voting for him is certainly morally acceptable if not even obligatory if one truly wants to save babies.
My feeling is that if more Catholics voted pro-life without looking at the polls, more pro-life candidates would be winning elections, instead of the “sort-of” pro-life candidates that are now getting in on the Catholic vote.
 
Is he going to institute a law to make abortion legal? Nope, too late. The SC somehow found it in the Constitution (though somehow missed the words ‘Right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness’).
Declaration of Independence (“life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness”), not the Constitution.
 
Yes. Roe v. Wade is the result of a Supreme Court determined to legislate by discovering heretofore unknown Constitutional “rights” as opposed to applying and interpreting the Constitution. The Pledge of Allegiance has nothing to do with it.
You missed the entire meaning of the question, use your imagination and intellect.
Originally Posted by JoeyWarren
If “Born, Unborn” had been added to the “Pledge of Allegience” when “Under God” was added, do you think there would have been a “Roe vs Wade”?
If we had been saying the Pledge of Allegience with the “Born, Un-Born” at the onset, what would you think would have happened over the course of the next 20 years? Thru repetition, people would have had the “Born, Un-born” embedded into the sub-conscience as well as the conscience, so when it came to the point where the person had gotten pregnant unexpectedly, would abortion be their first thought or would it be “keeping the baby” because of the ending of the pledge. It would be a case of conditioning, just as the “Under God” has conditioned most of us to believe that our Government was founded by God indirectly or founded on the premise of God’s values.

Can you even grasp the concept?

Imagine how things would have progressed if “Under God” had not been added in 1953.
 
You missed the entire meaning of the question, use your imagination and intellect.
If we had been saying the Pledge of Allegience with the “Born, Un-Born” at the onset, what would you think would have happened over the course of the next 20 years? Thru repetition, people would have had the “Born, Un-born” embedded into the sub-conscience as well as the conscience, so when it came to the point where the person had gotten pregnant unexpectedly, would abortion be their first thought or would it be “keeping the baby” because of the ending of the pledge. It would be a case of conditioning, just as the “Under God” has conditioned most of us to believe that our Government was founded by God indirectly or founded on the premise of God’s values.
The words “under God” were added to the Pledge of Allegiance in the 1950s during the Cold War in response to the threat of Godless Communism. You are giving way too much credit–undeserving credit–to the Pledge of Allegiance as a way to modifying behavior.
 
The words “under God” were added to the Pledge of Allegiance in the 1950s during the Cold War in response to the threat of Godless Communism. You are giving way too much credit–undeserving credit–to the Pledge of Allegiance as a way to modifying behavior.
Better do some research on the Pledge of Allegience and to whom the ultimate honor goes for having it included. The Roman Catholic Church via the Knights of Columbus.

Give too much credit? To something that is said every morning at school ( or at least it was when I went to school ) ?

Do some research on the studies of the effects of repitition in the realm of hearing and speaking.
 
The words “under God” were added to the Pledge of Allegiance in the 1950s during the Cold War in response to the threat of Godless Communism. You are giving way too much credit–undeserving credit–to the Pledge of Allegiance as a way to modifying behavior.
But it is true that most Americans are under the impression that the USA is “the new Israel” - and that going to war against other countries is “fighting for God,” etc., even though there is no connection between God and the USA whatsoever, in reality.
 
But it is true that most Americans are under the impression that the USA is “the new Israel” - and that going to war against other countries is “fighting for God,” etc., even though there is no connection between God and the USA whatsoever, in reality.
Israel is the only nation that can claim a real connection, as a nation or people, to God. However, the United States was founded by religious peoples, who were predominately Protestant in faith. Due to this history, as well as a Constitutional structure that guarantees the right of all peoples to practice their faith (including Catholics and non-Christians), the United States continues to have one of the most religious populaces of the Western Democracies. It’s not even close.
 
Israel is the only nation that can claim a real connection, as a nation or people, to God. However, the United States was founded by religious peoples, who were predominately Protestant in faith. Due to this history, as well as a Constitutional structure that guarantees the right of all peoples to practice their faith (including Catholics and non-Christians), the United States continues to have one of the most religious populaces of the Western Democracies. It’s not even close.
Here is an excerpt from

So why all these forties? Probably because it is forty weeks that a woman carries her developing baby before a new life can come forth from the womb.

All these “forties” are a necessary and not-so-comfortable prelude for something new. In Noah’s case, it’s the rebirth of a sinful world that had been cleansed by raging flood waters. In Moses’ case, it was the birth of the people of the covenant. For the nomadic Israelites, it was the start of a new, settled existence in the Promised land.

And Jesus? What did his forty days mean? The birth of a new Israel liberated from sin, reconciled to God, and governed by the law of the Spirit rather than a law chiseled in stone.
So why all these forties? Probably because it is forty weeks that a woman carries her developing baby before a new life can come forth from the womb.

All these “forties” are a necessary and not-so-comfortable prelude for something new. In Noah’s case, it’s the rebirth of a sinful world that had been cleansed by raging flood waters. In Moses’ case, it was the birth of the people of the covenant. For the nomadic Israelites, it was the start of a new, settled existence in the Promised land.

And Jesus? What did his forty days mean? **The birth of a new Israel **liberated from sin, reconciled to God, and governed by the law of the Spirit rather than a law chiseled in stone.

Read the entire article here:

crossroadsinitiative.com/library_article/7/Forty_Days_of_Lent.html
 
Here is an excerpt from

So why all these forties? Probably because it is forty weeks that a woman carries her developing baby before a new life can come forth from the womb.

All these “forties” are a necessary and not-so-comfortable prelude for something new. In Noah’s case, it’s the rebirth of a sinful world that had been cleansed by raging flood waters. In Moses’ case, it was the birth of the people of the covenant. For the nomadic Israelites, it was the start of a new, settled existence in the Promised land.

And Jesus? What did his forty days mean? The birth of a new Israel liberated from sin, reconciled to God, and governed by the law of the Spirit rather than a law chiseled in stone.
So why all these forties? Probably because it is forty weeks that a woman carries her developing baby before a new life can come forth from the womb.

All these “forties” are a necessary and not-so-comfortable prelude for something new. In Noah’s case, it’s the rebirth of a sinful world that had been cleansed by raging flood waters. In Moses’ case, it was the birth of the people of the covenant. For the nomadic Israelites, it was the start of a new, settled existence in the Promised land.

And Jesus? What did his forty days mean? **The birth of a new Israel **liberated from sin, reconciled to God, and governed by the law of the Spirit rather than a law chiseled in stone.

Read the entire article here:

crossroadsinitiative.com/library_article/7/Forty_Days_of_Lent.html
Uh, er…I don’t get how that was responsive to my post (#95 above) which you quoted…
 
Israel is the only nation that can claim a real connection,
We are the New Israel. We have more of a claim to God then the Old Israel. Jesus came for his People and we have accepted him. Our connection to God is greater because we have accept him in it’s entirety.

Old Israel is still waiting…
 
We are the New Israel. We have more of a claim to God then the Old Israel. Jesus came for his People and we have accepted him. Our connection to God is greater because we have accept him in it’s entirety.

Old Israel is still waiting…
Who is “we”?
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top