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MarcusAndreas
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Orthodox absolutions are conducted with the formula "The servant of God is absolved in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit,"does that mean they’re all invalid?
The formulas aren’t the formulas because they’re magic words, they’re the formulas because that’s what the Church says they are, not because of any magic in the words themselves. The priest had the intention to absolve and his language conveyed the meaning of absolution.
The formulas aren’t the formulas because they’re magic words, they’re the formulas because that’s what the Church says they are, not because of any magic in the words themselves. The priest had the intention to absolve and his language conveyed the meaning of absolution.
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Bookcat
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The *Church * determines what form is to be used.
Yes they are not “magic”-- but the form is part of the sacrament…and various changes can render the Sacrament invalid.
If I intend to baptize you and I pour water on your head and say “I baptize you in the name of the Creator, the Redeemer and the Sanctifer” --not withstanding my greatest desire and intent to baptize – it is invalid.
vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20080201_validity-baptism_en.html
(I am not addressing the Orthodox --but I will note that the Church accepts their Sacraments as valid --unless of course a Priest departs from a needed form or intention or matter of course) (I leave the OP question to the Church…)
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Neithan
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What if the priest said *“I baptize your son in the Name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit” *?
Or "I baptize your daughter in the Name of the Father…"
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Elizium23
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That is an extremely theoretical question, because no Catholic priest in good standing would do this and risk casting doubt on the validity of baptism… would he?
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Bookcat
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That would be something for the CDF to sort out…not little ol me
I have never heard the above used in Eastern Churches but, here are the Byzantine Rite absolution formulas:
The Greek/Arabic Byzantine Churches use this form of absolution:
“God it was who forgave David through Nathan the Prophet, when he confessed his sins, and Peter weeping bitterly for his denial, and the sinful woman in tears at his feet, and the Publican, and the Prodigal Son: May that same God forgive thee all things, through me a sinner, both in this present world, and in that which is to come, and set thee uncondemned before his dread Judgement Seat. And now, having no further care for the sins which thou hast declared, depart in peace.”
The Slavonic Byzantine Churches use this form:
“My child, N. N., may our Lord and God Christ Jesus by the mercy of His love absolve thee from thy sins; and I, His unworthy priest, in virtue of the authority committed to me, absolve thee and declare thee absolved of thy sins in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, Amen.”
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MarcusAndreas
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Maybe I misquoted. I just thought that I read some eastern formula that went something like that.
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