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simplynoone
Guest
Here is where I am working from… From this perspective, I was not raised Jewish and thus, I have to go with the only two things I have for deciphering, the Truth and the Word. The Truth is this… the Word comes with a promise found in Malachi 3:6. If this changes, then everything that I can trust is null and void anyway. Anything I need to know can be found within the Tanakh and that is what I work with. As I see it, it is clearly Israel that this is speaking of. It is by their knowledge that they are drawn back to where it is they belong… that being the Jewish. I am not looking for salvation in the way that Christians have. I am looking to follow the drawing that I have and learning about it by looking to the Word of God and the Word of God specifically says that this is speaking of Israel as I have shown with references.Just 4 points to the OP:
- Isaiah 53 has a long and established talmudic and early rabbinic interpertative history as referring to the Messiah. Not only does this appear in the Talmud and midrashes and other early rabbinic commentaries, but the NT itself is the greatest testimony that this was the understanding of Jews at the time of Christ, otherwise they would not have made the direct comparisions to the suffering servant passage.
- There is not as single reference in the Talmud or in the midrashes or in any acknowledged rabbinic commentary associating Isaiah 53 with the nation of Israel until the time of Rashi (1,000 years after the death and resurrection of Jesus) - why is that?
There are two different houses that are at play here and it would do well to understand the history of Israel. I do understand that you are claiming to be Jewish once, thus, perhaps you could show me where in the Tanakh that it was said to be Jesus who is the suffering servant. You are speculating as much as I am… the difference is, I have chose to search within the same text for my proof and you have chose the suggestions of man for yours.
- When you read Isaiah 53, it says that the Servant died for the sins of Israel and was righteous (without sin). The nation of Israel was not without sin - indeed, the scriptures tell the story of a stiff necked people constantly sinning (there is not one that is rigtheous, not one - as Isaiah says, their deeds are as dirty rags to God).
Yes, I do believe this. It makes it sad considering what is said in Hosea 4:6. This is why I share what I have learned.
- Isaiah 53 says that by the suffering of the Servant, those who wounded him are healed. Those who have persecuted Israel are/were not healed - they were punished. As God wrote in the Hebrew scriptures, those who bless Israel will be blessed, those who curse Israel will be cursed - and this has happened through history.
Contrast this with the Messiah (Jesus) who was sinless and whose death was indeed an atoning sacrifice for the sins of those who killed him.
Blessings,
The remnant of Israel are the ones said to be innocent… why do you think this is? Thus, another reason why I know the Messiah is Israel and not one man named Jesus.Brian (I am a Jewish believer).