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Sahih Bukhari 1:1:6 narrates the story of Abu Sufyan’s meeting with Heraclius. In this meeting Heraclius asks Abu Sufyan about Muhammad, and one of these questions “‘Does anybody amongst those who embrace his religion become displeased and renounce the religion afterwards?’”, to which Abu Sufyan replies “No”
The time of this event was 628, but before then Abu Sufyan’s own son-in-law left Islam and converted to Christianity. Why didn’t he mention this?
The time of this event was 628, but before then Abu Sufyan’s own son-in-law left Islam and converted to Christianity. Why didn’t he mention this?