Isn't 66 an incomplete number of books in the (Protestant) Bible?

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No, the question is simple; if I show you errors, blatant error, will you believe it is the Word of God or will you say it cannot be the Word of God; no one wants to go out on a limb because they are either afraid to say i would be right or they already know the truth. i already hinted by mentioning, chronological, historical and doctrinal errors, so what is your answer. ** Does God Word contain error and if not, then any book that contains error is not from god…right or not right?**
Just cut to the “Big Reveal” please. Show me these errors.

Catholics: Go to google and type in “apocrypha errors” and see what happens. I’d link some of them here but it is against forum rules to post links to anti-Catholic sites, such as CARM…

P.S. Masters–here’s an preemptive response for your errors.
 
Just cut to the “Big Reveal” please. Show me these errors.

Catholics: Go to google and type in “apocrypha errors” and see what happens. I’d link some of them here but it is against forum rules to post links to anti-Catholic sites, such as CARM…

P.S. Masters–here’s an preemptive response for your errors.
Though there are no quotes, the New Testament does make numerous allusions to the deuterocanonical books. For one strong example, examine Hebrews 11:35: “Women received their dead by resurrection. Some were tortured, refusing to accept release that they might rise again to a better life.” Nowhere in the Protestant Old Testament can this story be found. One must look to a Catholic Bible to read the story in 2 Maccabees 7.
 
Following this reasoning, we’d have to throw out the eight other Old Testament books—such as the Song of Songs—that are also not quoted in the New Testament. If we’re not willing to do that, we have to agree that the absence of a quote in the New Testament does not suggest that a book is not inspired.
BrianH, doesn’t St. Paul quote a pagan book in the Bible?
 
**Therefore; why do you refuse to answer the real question? If the Apocrypha contains error is it the Word of God or not and why? **
That’s EASY.
The Deuterocanonicals are not called “Apocrypha” so your point is moot.

Apocryphal writings include the Gospel of Peter, Epistles of Barnabas, Gospel of Thomas, etc.

**YOU call them Apocrypha - WE call them the Deuterocanonicals. **
Look it up . . .
 
Just cut to the “Big Reveal” please. Show me these errors.

Catholics: Go to google and type in “apocrypha errors” and see what happens. I’d link some of them here but it is against forum rules to post links to anti-Catholic sites, such as CARM…

P.S. Masters–here’s an preemptive response for your errors.
You are afraid to answer the question because it paints one into a corner; if you say the Word of God is w/out error, then you have to reject your own version of the Bible and if you say it does contain error the the light has just exposed the darkness; so you are between a rock and a hard place, which is why no one will go out on the limb, they already know the consequences…they want it both ways, but how to do that and satisfy or fool men. God won’t be fooled, but men are easily fooled, but not the obedient, prayerful and diligent Christian.

The article is useless because it doesn’t address the core issue, but tries to minimize the facts that it contains error and then distracts about one aspect of determining if something was inspired from God; as though there was only one criteria. If their is only one criteria, then the writer would have a single foot to stand on; in other words the article is useless defense against the truth of God.

I suggest looking at this simple article on how canon was determined and as the writer points out; ultimately is was determined by God; not men. Here

I checked the article, so if you stick only to the article that is not any mention of the word Catholic nor an implication of the Catholic Church. However the site does contain information about religions in general; so just stick to the article.
 
You are afraid to answer the question because it paints one into a corner; if you say the Word of God is w/out error, then you have to reject your own version of the Bible and if you say it does contain error the the light has just exposed the darkness; so you are between a rock and a hard place, which is why no one will go out on the limb, they already know the consequences…they want it both ways, but how to do that and satisfy or fool men. God won’t be fooled, but men are easily fooled, but not the obedient, prayerful and diligent Christian.
I’m not afraid of anything, which is why I asked you to cut to the chase.
The article is useless because it doesn’t address the core issue, but tries to minimize the facts that it contains error and then distracts about one aspect of determining if something was inspired from God; as though there was only one criteria. If their is only one criteria, then the writer would have a single foot to stand on; in other words the article is useless defense against the truth of God.
If you really want to use errors against the Word of God, then many of the books that you and I accept as canon arguably contain discrepancies such as if it was Mary Magdalene or the Apostles which saw the Resurrected Christ or which Herod reigned while Jesus was born, etc.
I suggest looking at this simple article on how canon was determined and as the writer points out; ultimately is was determined by God; not men. Here
The fact is the God uses mediators between Himself and humanity; see Moses, Abraham, the Prophets, etc. I find your assertion ironic because, as the prosecution of Deurocanonicals, the Council of Jamnia where Jewish men determined the correct canon.
I checked the article, so if you stick only to the article that is not any mention of the word Catholic nor an implication of the Catholic Church. However the site does contain information about religions in general; so just stick to the article.
Thanks. I’ll check the article and will comment on it later.
 
That’s EASY.
The Deuterocanonicals are not called "Apocrypha" so your point is moot.

Apocryphal writings include the Gospel of Peter, Epistles of Barnabas, Gospel of Thomas, etc.
YOU call them Apocrypha - WE call them the Deuterocanonicals.
Look it up . . .
Red herring to avoid answering the question; typical for you. You in no uncertain terms made it clear you understand the question and tried to avoid it on a technicality in the mind of “Elvis Alone”.

So why not answer the question; I do not believe you believe the Word of God is without error. Not to mention the terms are used interchangeably as demonstrated in your own posts and throughout this thread, which proves my point that you are AFRAID to answer because you know it paints you into a corner.
 
MS, please just tells us the errors. I’m waiting for you to tell me that the Book of Tobit promotes magic and the alms giving forgives sins. The Book of Maccabees promotes the “pagan idea” of praying for the dead. The Book of Judith contains a historical error about Nebuchadnezzar’s reign.

All of which I already covered in this.
 
For the Catholics whom are Christian, it’s closed yet we still are at an impasse about the Deutocanonical idea…
Here’s a little bit of further information in relation to how the Lutheran Church has traditionally treated the DC books. I’m not going to get into their supposed errors. It really isn’t beneficial and doesn’t get to the heart of the issue. Yes, Luther had problems with them because of some historical errors and inability to reconcile discrepancies.

One thing you notice about canon, is that until after Trent there really was no disputing over it. I believe Martin Luther was right in the mainstream of belief of the Roman Catholic Church, indeed I believe there was no real disagreement by that time. But that revisionist historians have tried to make it look like there was a dispute or that Martin Luther was an innovator concerning canon and just threw out certain books.

Now I don’t have the citation handy but Schaff lists the resources that Martin Luther used for his translation, one thing that is really interesting is that every resource he had agreed completely on the canon. And what they taught was exactly how Martin Luther treated the books.

First we turn to the Vulgate. Jerome is clear in such places as his introduction to Kings which books are and are not Scripture, he even calls the DC books apocryphal.

Secondly, Martin Luther had a copy of the Glossa Ordinaria, given him by his bishop, this standard textbook was used by the Roman Catholic church in all it’s training of theologians. It spelled out how many unlearned thought all the book were Scripture but how the learned knew the difference. It enumerated what was and what wasn’t Scripture in perfect agreement with Luther. In order to make certain there was no misunderstanding, at the start of each DC book it was carefully noted that they were not Scripture. Erasmus’ Greek text did not of course deal with the DC, but in his other works which Luther was familiar with, he too agreed on the canon.

There were also Latin translations being produced. One was quite noteworthy. Produced in 1528 by the Dominican, Sanctes Pagnimi, and complete with letters of commendation from two Popes was the first translation to set off the DC books in a separate section (which means Luther was not the first to do so).

Slightly earlier we have the great Complutensian Polyglot Bible produced by Cardinal Ximenes, Archbishop of Toledo, and by scholars from the university in his city in 1520. It states the DC books are not canonical scripture, it also says the Church did not receive the DC books for confirming any fundamental point of doctrine, that they were permitted to be read for edification.

And that brings us to the real answer, scripture was used in two senses. One was authoritative for doctrine, the other was if it was read in the church. Cardinal Cajetan, that great opponent of Luther in 1532, just a couple of years before Luther’s complete bible was published, gives us a rosetta stone type of statement from his commentary on the Old Testament.

“Here we close our commentaries on the historical books of the Old Testament. For the rest (Judith, Tobit, Macabees) are counted by St. Jerome out of the canonical books, and are placed among the Apocrypha, along with Wisdom and Ecclsiasticus, as is plain from the Prologus Galeatus (Jerome’s preface to Kings). Nor be thou disturbed, like a raw scholar, if thou shouldest find anywhere, either in the sacred councils or the sacred doctors, these books reckoned canonical. For the words as well as of councils as of doctors are to be reduced to the correction of Jerome.”

I think the best understanding of “canon” would be “rule of use.” This is how Chemnitz uses it and expounds it in his Examination of the Council of Trent. He effectively argued that the Christian canon is defined by how a book is actually used, not by an authoritative master list. Another Lutheran theologian, Piepkorn states: “The term ‘canonical’ in Christian tradition is always relative; it refers to the actual canon in use in a given diocese or province at a given time. The content of the canon varies from time to time and from place to place. The canon was never fixed for the whole Church by an ecumenical council.” (Sacred Scripture and the Lutheran Confessions, p. 4)

This is just fact. Athanasius’ list disagrees with Nazianzus’s list disagrees with Augustine’s list. It’s not even clear that the Lutheran Symbols agree with each other over the list. If you take out the DC, you’ve not lost a single dogma of the Church; if you add them in, you’ve not added to a single dogma of the Church. God is good and wise!
 
Red herring to avoid answering the question; typical for you. You in no uncertain terms made it clear you understand the question and tried to avoid it on a technicality in the mind of “Elvis Alone”.

So why not answer the question; I do not believe you believe the Word of God is without error. Not to mention the terms are used interchangeably as demonstrated in your own posts and throughout this thread, which proves my point that you are AFRAID to answer because you know it paints you into a corner.
Not a red herring at all. Just pointing out the silliness of your question.

**Do you believe the ****Gospels **to be without error? Many historians don’t. They point to the Luke2:1-2:
"And it came to pass in those days that a decree went out from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be registered. This census first took place while Quirinius was governing Syria."

According to history - Quirinius wasn’t governor until 6 A.D. but according to the Bible he was already governor before Jesus was born.

According to history, Herod died in 4 B.C. but according to the Bible, he was still alive when Jesus was born.


**Roman records also show that it was Sentius Saturninus who was governor of Syria during that census (9 B.C. to 6 B.C.) - not Quirinius. **

The point is - ALL of these facts can be argued.
NOW - let me have it with all of the errors in the Deuteros - if you can . . . :rolleyes:
 
I’m not afraid of anything, which is why I asked you to cut to the chase.
Really; you have been asked the same question at least 3 times and have yet to answer it. When you are ready to commit, then I will answer your question. I’ll rephrase it again for you and keep it even simpler. Is the Word of God without error or not?
If you really want to use errors against the Word of God, then many of the books that you and I accept as canon arguably contain discrepancies such as if it was Mary Magdalene or the Apostles which saw the Resurrected Christ or which Herod reigned while Jesus was born, etc.
Now you do not need to answer the question above; you have implicitly stated “no” you do not believe the Word of God is without error.
The fact is the God uses mediators between Himself and humanity; see Moses, Abraham, the Prophets, etc. I find your assertion ironic because, as the prosecution of Deurocanonicals, the Council of Jamnia where Jewish men determined the correct canon.
When was Malachi completed? When was the Council of Jamnia? What does 2 plus 2 equal? That Council has been disputed over and over, but Canon is the rule or standard and Malachi ended some 400 years before John the Baptist and the Books of the Protestant OT are the accepted by the Jews; so again it will depend on whom you ask. I do not believe anyone can be dogmatic; particularly the religions that claim to continue “to receive” revelation. If one were to be dogmatic, then one would have to say it was decided before the foundation of the world by God.
 
MS, please just tells us the errors. I’m waiting for you to tell me that the Book of Tobit promotes magic and the alms giving forgives sins. The Book of Maccabees promotes the “pagan idea” of praying for the dead. The Book of Judith contains a historical error about Nebuchadnezzar’s reign.

All of which I already covered in this.
That is called covered? 👍 Please; give me a break. You have already answered the question to my satisfaction anyway.
 
For the Catholics whom are Christian, it’s closed yet we still are at an impasse about the Deutocanonical idea…
How can you call it closed when Tradition adds to Scripture as you all have implied by calling it equal to Scripture? Canon means rule or standard; your traditions add to it; if it were the same, then you would not need Tradition as part of your faith and practice; so by default your Canon is not closed. You can call it closed and God would consider it closed, but the effect of tradition is adding to the rule or standards by your own admissions.
 
Not a red herring at all. Just pointing out the silliness of your question.

**Do you believe the ****Gospels **to be without error? Many historians don’t. They point to the Luke2:1-2:
"And it came to pass in those days that a decree went out from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be registered. This census first took place while Quirinius was governing Syria."

According to history - Quirinius wasn’t governor until 6 A.D. but according to the Bible** he was already governor before Jesus was born.**

According to history, Herod died in 4 B.C. but according to the Bible**, he was still alive when Jesus was born.**

Roman records also show that it was Sentius Saturninus who was governor of Syria during that census (9 B.C. to 6 B.C.) - not Quirinius.

The point is - ALL of these facts can be argued.
NOW - let me have it with all of the errors in the Deuteros - if you can . . . :rolleyes:
You still have not answered the question directed to you; although you implied that you do not, which makes sense and explains quite a bit; that is why a Christian walks by faith and not by sight and fully trusts God. Do you?
 
Really; you have been asked the same question at least 3 times and have yet to answer it. When you are ready to commit, then I will answer your question. I’ll rephrase it again for you and keep it even simpler. Is the Word of God without error or not?
I have responded three times that I’m ready for you to cut to the chase and show me these errors. It is self-evident that Protestants don’t take the Deutocanonicals as the word of God or else it would be included in the Bible. Since the Deutocanonicals are included in the Catholic Bible, it stands to reason that Catholics believe is the Word of God. These books, you believe, contain errors.

Please tell me.
Now you do not need to answer the question above; you have implicitly stated “no” you do not believe the Word of God is without error.
I believe that the Bible is not without error in regards to faith and morals; Sola Scriptura means the Bible of the sole rule of faith, not necessarily extending beyond faith/morals either.
When was Malachi completed? When was the Council of Jamnia? What does 2 plus 2 equal? That Council has been disputed over and over, but Canon is the rule or standard and Malachi ended some 400 years before John the Baptist and the Books of the Protestant OT are the accepted by the Jews; so again it will depend on whom you ask. I do not believe anyone can be dogmatic; particularly the religions that claim to continue “to receive” revelation. If one were to be dogmatic, then one would have to say it was decided before the foundation of the world by God.
If you cannot be dogmatic and it depends on who you can, then why not accept the Catholic since it’s a matter of “certain point of view”? If the canon can* only* known by God, then both Protestants and Catholics are in trouble.
How can you call it closed when Tradition adds to Scripture as you all have implied by calling it equal to Scripture? Canon means rule or standard; your traditions add to it; if it were the same, then you would not need Tradition as part of your faith and practice; so by default your Canon is not closed. You can call it closed and God would consider it closed, but the effect of tradition is adding to the rule or standards by your own admissions.
Or detracting from them, depending on your point of view. Catholics believe that Sacred Tradition and Sacred Scripture are a seamless garment; one isn’t greater than the other and both form the deposit of faith, which the Church has preserved throughout the centuries.

A few post back, you argued that the Catholic Church set the Deutocanonicals into stone to combat the Reformers yet now the case is now open? You cannot have it both ways.
 
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