James 2:14

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Doesn’t that say it all? The entire Protestant foundation is based upon refuting this passage, yet Sola Scriptura invokes the sole authority of the Bible alone?
 
Doesn’t that say it all? The entire Protestant foundation is based upon refuting this passage, yet Sola Scriptura invokes the sole authority of the Bible alone?

Three points:​

  • Why would a Sola Scriptura Protestant want to deny, or want to refute, this verse ?
  • Not all Protestants adhere to *Sola Scriptura *- Anglicans don’t
  • Here is Calvin on the passage:
    **14 **What doth it profit. He proceeds to commend mercy. And as he had threatened that God would be a severe Judge to us, and at the same time very dreadful, except we be kind and merciful towards our neighbors, and as on the other hand hypocrites objected and said, that faith is sufficient to us, in which the salvation of men consists, he now condemns this vain boasting. The sum, then, of what is said is, that faith without love avails nothing, and that it is therefore wholly dead.
But here a question arises, Can faith be separated from love? It is indeed true that the exposition of this passage has produced that common distinction of the Sophists, between unformed and formed faith; but of such a thing James knew nothing, for it appears from the first words, that he speaks of false profession of faith: for he does not begin thus, “If any one has faith;” but, “If any says that he has faith;” by which he certainly intimates that hypocrites boast of the empty name of faith, which really does not belong to them.

That he calls it then faith, is a concession, as the Rhetoricians say; for when we discuss a point, it does no harm, nay, it is sometimes expedient, to concede to an adversary what he demands, for as soon as the thing itself is known, what is conceded may be easily taken away from him. James then, as he was satisfied that it was a false pretext by which hypocrites covered themselves, was not disposed to raise a dispute about a word or an expression. Let us, however, remember that he does not speak according to the impression of his own mind when he mentions faith, but that on the contrary he disputes against those who made a false pretense as to faith, of which they were wholly destitute.

Can faith save him? This is the same as though he had said, that we do not attain salvation by a frigid and bare knowledge of God, which all confess to be most true; for salvation comes to us by faith for this reason, because it joins us to God. And this comes not in any other way than by being united to the body of Christ, so that, living through his Spirit, we are also governed by him. There is no such thing as this in the dead image of faith. There is then no wonder that James denies that salvation is connected with it.
Here is the Westminster Confession’s chapter on the subject, with the 1869 commentary of A. A. Hodge:
 
Doesn’t that say it all? The entire Protestant foundation is based upon refuting this passage, yet Sola Scriptura invokes the sole authority of the Bible alone?
Gottle of Geer is correct. Not all Protestants believe the same thing, or else there wouldn’t be 100’s or 1000’s of denominations, now would there?

Trying to envelope all Protestants with a blanket statement is like trying to herd cats. It just can’t be done!!! 😉

But to your point, those that adhere to “Faith Alone” (Sole Fide, I believe it’s called) as well as Sola Scriptura have a hard time addressing this verse. Martin Luther was so exasperated by this verse that he tried to have the entire Book of James removed from the NT Canon. Other Protestants (but not all - remember the cat analogy! :)) have tried to explain it away by claiming that Paul’s Epistle to the Romans was written to correct the early Church’s mis-reading of this verse of James’.
 
But to your point, those that adhere to “Faith Alone” (Sole Fide, I believe it’s called) as well as Sola Scriptura have a hard time addressing this verse. Martin Luther was so exasperated by this verse that he tried to have the entire Book of James removed from the NT Canon. Other Protestants (but not all - remember the cat analogy! :)) have tried to explain it away by claiming that Paul’s Epistle to the Romans was written to correct the early Church’s mis-reading of this verse of James’.
I am in a debate concerning this. I quoted James 2:14-26. And they started firing back with Romans Chapter 3 and one of the Epistles to Titus.

Are there any good resources on the proper interpretation of Romans? Thanks. 🙂
 
I am in a debate concerning this. I quoted James 2:14-26. And they started firing back with Romans Chapter 3 and one of the Epistles to Titus.

Are there any good resources on the proper interpretation of Romans? Thanks. 🙂
Read this apologetics article if you want to get to the heart of the debate and see why the Catholic interpretation is undeniably the correct interpretation.

Then, after pondering what you just read, read the article AGAIN a few days later on to get a better grasp. That article helped me a lot and I have read it a few times already.
 
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