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fischcabob
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The Jehovah Witnesses use the following passages to “prove” that Christ is God’s Son and is inferior to Him and, therefore, not God:
Matt. 3:17
Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.”
John 8:42
Jesus said to them: “If God were your Father, you would love me, for from God I came forth and am here. Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth.
John 14:28
You heard that I said to you, I am going away and I am coming [back] to you. If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am.
John 20:17
“Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.’”
1 Cor. 11:3
But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn the head of a woman is the man; in turn the head of the Christ is God.
1 Cor. 15:28
But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone.
How are these passages to be interpreted and how do we answer these “proofs”?
(This same question was previously entered in (probably) the wrong forum - Ask an Apologist).
Matt. 3:17
Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.”
John 8:42
Jesus said to them: “If God were your Father, you would love me, for from God I came forth and am here. Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth.
John 14:28
You heard that I said to you, I am going away and I am coming [back] to you. If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am.
John 20:17
“Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.’”
1 Cor. 11:3
But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn the head of a woman is the man; in turn the head of the Christ is God.
1 Cor. 15:28
But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone.
How are these passages to be interpreted and how do we answer these “proofs”?
(This same question was previously entered in (probably) the wrong forum - Ask an Apologist).