Jehovah's Witnesses

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JohnOneOne:
I think you have missed his point. He is saying just the opposite in that, those within the “mainstream” and “successful” should not be the factors in determining who has “truth,” no matter who they are, large or “small.” Quite interestingly, he is also saying that, just because a belief has been held throughout a long period of time does not, in and of itself, prove the correctness of that belief. And, as he had also so pointedly expressed, "Who, then, shall pronounce any thing to be divine truth, simply because it has the marks of having been generally or universally received among men?”
I understood the point. It’s aimed at Catholicism by comparing the large and mainstream to the few and outcast. My point was that it would be unintelligent to use ones lack of success or the widespread non-acceptance of their ideas as a proof of their veracity.
 
Dear Robert,
You think a construct of two Aramaic/Hebrew terms for God is His real name (even though NO EVIDENCE of it exists prior to the committee which used it for the Authorized Version in the Jacobean period.
With respect to the your statement that Jehovah’s Witnesses “think a construct of two Aramaic/Hebrew terms for God is His real name,” that is simply not true. But, before I go on, this comment might prove to be interesting:

The Catholic Encyclopedia [1913, Vol. VIII, p. 329 (italics theirs)] states: “Jehovah, the proper name of God in the Old Testament; hence the Jews called it the name by excellence, the great name, the only name.”

Also, the Catholic New American Bible explains within a footnote on Exodus 3:14 that it favors the form “Yahweh,” and yet, even this form of the name does not appear anywhere within the main text of that translation. In the Saint Joseph Edition, see also the appendix Bible Dictionary under “Lord” and “Yahweh.”

Within the Catholic Jerusalem Bible, the Tetragrammaton -the four Hebrew letters of God’s Divine and Holy Name - is translated Yahweh, starting with its first occurrence, at Genesis 2:4, and following throughout over 6,000 times it appears within the Hebrew of the “Old Testament” portion of that Bible.

Otherwise, please consider these comments, taken from the Watchtower publication entitled, Reasoning from the Scriptures, p. 195, under the heading, “Jehovah”

“Which form of the divine name is correct—Jehovah or Yahweh?”

“No human today can be certain how it was originally pronounced in Hebrew. Why not? Biblical Hebrew was originally written with only consonants, no vowels. When the language was in everyday use, readers easily provided the proper vowels. In time, however, the Jews came to have the superstitious idea that it was wrong to say God’s personal name out loud, so they used substitute expressions. Centuries later, Jewish scholars developed a system of points by which to indicate which vowels to use when reading ancient Hebrew, but they put the vowels for the substitute expressions around the four consonants representing the divine name. Thus the original pronunciation of the divine name was lost.”

“Many scholars favor the spelling “Yahweh,” but it is uncertain and there is not agreement among them. On the other hand, “Jehovah” is the form of the name that is most readily recognized, because it has been used in English for centuries and preserves, equally with other forms, the four consonants of the Hebrew Tetragrammaton.”

Quite interestnly, in support of this, a respectible Catholic scholar of the past had taken the very same position, for the very same reason:

Catholic Jesuit scholar Paul Joüon (b.1871-d.1940) states: “In our translations, instead of the (hypothetical) form Yahweh, we have used the form Jéhovah … which is the conventional literary form used in French.” — Grammaire de l’hébreu biblique (Rome, Italy: Institut Biblique Pontifical, 1923), footnote on p. 49. OCLC: 61962162.

Therefore, with respect to your claim that Jehovah’s Witnesses “think a construct of two Aramaic/Hebrew terms for God is His real name,” again, this is simply not true.

Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
Dear justinthemartyr,

In view of the above, I would ask that you would also please consider:

"Ignatius calls Almighty God “the only true God, the unbegotten and unapproachable, the Lord of all, the Father and Begetter of the only-begotten Son,” showing the distinction between God and His Son.1
I found out this quote came from the Longer version of Ignatius’ Epistle to the Ephsians ch 7, note the context:There is one Physician who is possessed both of flesh and spirit; both made and not made; God existing in flesh; true life in death; both of Mary and of God; first passible and then impassible, … …

But our Physician is the only true God, the unbegotten and unapproachable, the Lord of all, the Father and Begetter of the only-begotten Son. We have also as a Physician the Lord our God, Jesus the Christ, the only-begotten Son and Word, before time began, but who afterwards became also man, of Mary the virgin. For “the Word was made flesh.
There certainly is a distinction between the Father and Son, that is orthodox Trinitarian theology. The problem however which you fail to realize is the clear Divinity of the Son. Your quote failed to realize this and was a distortion of the Trinity.
He speaks of “God the Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ.”2
I found this quote in his Epistle to the Philadelphians ch 1. There is no problem here
And he declares: “There is one God, the Almighty, who has manifested Himself by Jesus Christ His Son.”3
.
I found this quote as well, in the Epistle to the Magnesians. Note what else he says:… there is one God, who has manifested Himself by Jesus Christ His Son, who is His eternal Word, not proceeding forth from silence, and who in all things pleased Him that sent Him -ch 8
There is nothing anti-Trinitarian about this… I pray for a union both of the flesh and spirit of Jesus Christ, the constant source of our life, and of faith and love, to which nothing is to be preferred, but especially of Jesus and the Father, in whom, if we endure all the assaults of the prince of this world, and escape them, we shall enjoy God. - ch1

The unbelieving are of this world; but the believing have, in love,** the character of God the Father by Jesus Christ**, by whom, if we are not in readiness to die into His passion, His life is not in us. -ch 5

… entrusted with the ministry of Jesus Christ, who was with the Father before the beginning of time, and in the end was revealed. - ch 6

As therefore the Lord did nothing without the Father, being united to Him, neither by Himself nor by the apostles, so neither do anything without the bishop and presbyters. … There is one Jesus Christ, than whom nothing is more excellent. Therefore run together as into one temple of God, as to one altar, as to one Jesus Christ, who came forth from one Father, and is with and has gone to one. -ch 7

… whatsoever you do, may prosper both in the flesh and spirit; in faith and love; in the Son, and in the Father, and in the Spirit; in the beginning and in the end; with your most admirable bishop, and the well-compacted spiritual crown of your presbytery, and the deacons who are according to God. Be subject to the bishop, and to one another, as Jesus Christ to the Father, according to the flesh, and the apostles to Christ, and to the Father, and to the Spirit; that so there may be a union both fleshly and spiritual. -ch 13
These are well in line with Trinitarian teaching.
(cont)
 
I understood the point. It’s aimed at Catholicism by comparing the large and mainstream to the few and outcast. My point was that it would be unintelligent to use ones lack of success or the widespread non-acceptance of their ideas as a proof of their veracity.
Dear fhansen,

To which, I agree. And yet, the opposite would also hold true:

‘It would be unintelligent to use ones success or the widespread acceptance of their ideas as a proof of their veracity.’

Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
Ignatius shows that the Son was not eternal as a person but was created, for he has the Son saying: “The Lord [Almighty God] created Me, the beginning of His ways.”4
Iinterestingly I found out this was under listed under his “Spurious Epistles” (ie scholars question if he actually wrote it). THAT being said check out the context:Nor is He a mere man, by whom and in whom all things were made; for “all things were made by Him.” John 1:3 “When He made the heaven, I was present with Him; and I was there with Him, forming [the world along with Him], and He rejoiced in me daily.” And how could a mere man be addressed in such words as these: “Sit at My right hand?” And how, again, could such an one declare: “Before Abraham was, I am?” John 8:58 And, “Glorify Me with Your glory which I had before the world was?” John 17:5 What man could ever say, “I came down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him that sent Me?” John 6:38 And of what man could it be said, “He was the true Light, which lights every man that comes into the world: He was in the world, and the world was made by Him, and the world knew Him not. He came unto His own, and His own received Him not?” How could such a one be a mere man, receiving the beginning of His existence from Mary, and not rather God the Word, and the only-begotten Son? For “in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, John 1:1 and the Word was God.” And in another place, “The Lord created Me, the beginning of His ways, for His ways, for His works. Before the world did He found Me, and before all the hills did He beget Me.” -To Tarsesians ch 6
Given he just quoted Jn 1:1 I dont think he was talking about literal creation here, but at the very least Ignatius describes Jesus as a divine co-creator with God. Here are some significant quotes I found in that same letter:Wherefore I am prepared for [encountering] fire, wild beasts, the sword or the cross, so that only I may see Christ my Saviour and God, who died for me. -ch1

And [know, moreover], that He who was born of a woman was the Son of God, and He that was crucified was "the first-born of every creature," Colossians 1:15 and God the Word, who also created all things. For says the apostle, “There is one God, the Father, of whom are all things; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things.” 1 Corinthians 8:6 and And again, “For there is one God, and one Mediator between God man, the man Christ Jesus;” 1 Timothy 2:5 and, “By Him were all things created that are in heaven, and on earth, visible and invisible; and He is before all things, and by Him all things consist.” Colossians 1:16-17
-ch 4

And that He Himself is not God over all, and the Father, but His Son, He [shows when He] says, “I ascend unto my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God.” John 20:17 And again, “When all things shall be subdued unto Him, then shall He also Himself be subject unto Him that put all things under Him, that God may be all in all.” 1 Corinthians 15:28 Wherefore it is one who put all things under, and who is all in all, and another to whom they were subdued, who also Himself, along with all other things, becomes subject .
-ch 6
This is very powerful testimony to the Divinity of Jesus whom is called God the Word and CO-CREATOR of all things. It is simply blasphemous for a creation to be co-creator. The last paragraph above was Ignatius pointing out the Modalist heresy where heretics were saying Jesus was the Father.
(cont)
 
Continuing on in the Spurious letter to the Antiochans [middle of linked page] we see:For Moses, the faithful servant of God, when he said, “The Lord your God is one Lord,” Deuteronomy 6:4; Mark 12:29 and thus proclaimed that there was only one God, did yet forthwith confess also our Lord when he said, "The Lord rained upon Sodom and Gomorrha fire and brimstone from the Lord." Genesis 19:24 And again, “And God said, Let Us make man after our image: and so God made man, after the image of God made He him.” Genesis 1:26-27 And further “In the image of God made He man.” Genesis 5:1, Genesis 9:6 shows when] he says, And that [the Son of God] was to be made man [Moses"A prophet shall the Lord raise up unto you of your brethren, like me." -ch 2

The Evangelists, too, when they declared that the one Father was “the only true God,” John 17:3 did not omit what concerned our Lord, but wrote: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by Him, and without Him was not anything made that was made.” John 1:1 And concerning the incarnation: “The Word,” says [the Scripture], “became flesh, and dwelt among us.” John 1:14
-ch 4

Whosoever, therefore, declares that there is but one God, only so as to take away the divinity of Christ, is a devil, and an enemy of all righteousness. He also that confesses Christ, yet not as the Son of the Maker of the world, but of some other unknown being, different from Him whom the law and the prophets have proclaimed, this man is an instrument of the devil. And he that rejects the incarnation, and is ashamed of the cross for which I am in bonds, this man is antichrist. Moreover, he who affirms Christ to be a mere man is accursed, according to the [declaration of the] prophet, since he puts not his trust in God, but in man.
-ch 5
Here he is directly applying Trinitarian thought to passages like “Let US make man in OUR image” and such. He goes onto apply Jn 1:1 to Jesus’ Divinity and in ch 5 condemns those who reject the Divinity of Christ.
Similarly, Ignatius said: “There is one God of the universe, the Father of Christ, ‘of whom are all things;’ and one Lord Jesus Christ, our Lord, ‘by whom are all things.’”5
This is found in Ignatius’ Spurious Epistle to the Ephesians, but look at what that quote leaves off:For if there is one God of the universe, the Father of Christ, “of whom are all things;” 1 Corinthians 8:6 and one Lord Jesus Christ, our [Lord], “by whom are all things;” 1 Corinthians 8:6 and also one Holy Spirit, who wrought 1 Corinthians 12:11 in Moses, and in the prophets and apostles; …
-ch1

There is then one God and Father, and not two or three; One who is; and there is no other besides Him, the only true [God]. For “the Lord your God,” says [the Scripture], “is one Lord.” Deuteronomy 6:4; Mark 12:29 And again, "Has not one God created us? Have we not all one Father? Malachi 2:10 And there is also one Son, God the Word. For “the only-begotten Son,” says [the Scripture], “who is in the bosom of the Father.” John 1:18 And again, “One Lord Jesus Christ.” 1 Corinthians 8:6 And in another place, “What is His name, or what His Son’s name, that we may know?” Proverbs 30:4
And there is also one Paraclete. For “there is also,” says [the Scripture], “one Spirit,” Ephesians 4:4 since “we have been called in one hope of our calling.” 1 Corinthians 12:13 And again, “We have drunk of one Spirit,” Ephesians 4:4 with what follows. And it is manifest that all these gifts [possessed by believers] “works one and the self-same Spirit.” 1 Corinthians 12:11 There are not then either three Fathers, or three Sons, or three Paracletes, but one Father, and one Son, and one Paraclete. Wherefore also the Lord, when He sent forth the apostles to make disciples of all nations, commanded them to “baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost,” Matthew 28:19 not unto one [person] having three names, nor into three [persons] who became incarnate, but into three possessed of equal honour.
-ch 2
The context is clearly Trinitarian and notes the “equal honor” of them all.
(cont)
 
(last)
He also writes: “There is one God who manifested himself through Jesus Christ his Son, who is his Word which proceeded from silence and in every respect pleased him [God] who sent him. ... Jesus Christ was subject to the Father.”6
I addressed this quote at the top.
True, Ignatius calls the Son “God the Word.” But using the word “God” for the Son does not necessarily mean equality with Almighty God. The Bible also calls the Son “God” at Isaiah 9:6. John 1:18 calls the Son “the only-begotten god.” Being vested with power and authority from Jehovah God, the Father, the Son could properly be termed a “mighty one,” which is what “god” basically means.—Matthew 28:18; 1*Corinthians 8:6; Hebrews 1:2
This doesnt hurt our claims one bit. In fact it is your presumption that it “desnt necesarily mean equality with Almighty God” when the context of such passages (eg Jn 1) says otherwise. The fact Jesus is co-creator is enough to show Jesus is not a mere man.
Taken from: The Watchtower, 1992 2/1, p. 21. Part 2 — “Did the Apostolic Fathers Teach the Trinity Doctrine?”
Those proofs were less than convincing, especially because of the clear testimony to the Son’s Divinity in Ignatius’s work which I showed above.
Furthermore, with respect to any of the “Fathers” calling Jesus “God,” it might be good to remember that, even within the Bible:

“The Hebrew for ‘gods’ (‘elōhîm) could refer to various exalted begins besides Yahweh [or, Jehovah], without implying any challenge to monotheism,…”

Taken from:Blomberg, Craig L. (b.?-d.?). The Historical Reliability of John’s Gospel: Issues & Commentary. (Downers Grove, Illinois: InterVarsity Press, c2002), “The feast of Dedication” ([John] 10:22-42), p. 163. BS2615.6.H55 B56 2002 / 2001051563.

Therefore, even though we might find some mention of Jesus being called “God” by any of the early Church “Fathers,” when taken along together with many of their other, qualifying, often, balancing statements, these cannot be used as support for the notion that they had, in actuality, viewed Jesus in the same way in which they viewed the Almighty God, the Father.
That is a false argument starting with the presumption that it can NEVER mean true equality. That is not how those Father quotes portray it however.
Sad to say, when I see discussions like this, more often than not, those who are inclined to quote from the “Fathers,” that is, from many of their statements which would appear to support the idea that they had, indeed, called Jesus “God,” apparently they are only saying/claiming so because they have not really taken the time to examine many of their other statements which, as I said above, provide the balances to this, otherwise, seemingly unquestionable position.
I dont know who you are talking to, but I just looked up each of those quotes myself while you just cut and pasted without verifying context or anything else. On top of that many of your quotes are misleading.
 
I found out this quote came from the Longer version of Ignatius’ Epistle to the Ephsians ch 7, note the context:There is one Physician who is possessed both of flesh and spirit; both made and not made; God existing in flesh; true life in death; both of Mary and of God; first passible and then impassible, … …

But our Physician is the only true God, the unbegotten and unapproachable, the Lord of all, the Father and Begetter of the only-begotten Son. We have also as a Physician the Lord our God, Jesus the Christ, the only-begotten Son and Word, before time began, but who afterwards became also man, of Mary the virgin. For “the Word was made flesh.
There certainly is a distinction between the Father and Son, that is orthodox Trinitarian theology. The problem however which you fail to realize is the clear Divinity of the Son. Your quote failed to realize this and was a distortion of the Trinity.

I found this quote in his Epistle to the Philadelphians ch 1. There is no problem here

.
I found this quote as well, in the Epistle to the Magnesians. Note what else he says:… there is one God, who has manifested Himself by Jesus Christ His Son, who is His eternal Word, not proceeding forth from silence, and who in all things pleased Him that sent Him -ch 8
There is nothing anti-Trinitarian about this… I pray for a union both of the flesh and spirit of Jesus Christ, the constant source of our life, and of faith and love, to which nothing is to be preferred, but especially of Jesus and the Father, in whom, if we endure all the assaults of the prince of this world, and escape them, we shall enjoy God. - ch1

The unbelieving are of this world; but the believing have, in love,** the character of God the Father by Jesus Christ**, by whom, if we are not in readiness to die into His passion, His life is not in us. -ch 5

… entrusted with the ministry of Jesus Christ, who was with the Father before the beginning of time, and in the end was revealed. - ch 6

As therefore the Lord did nothing without the Father, being united to Him, neither by Himself nor by the apostles, so neither do anything without the bishop and presbyters. … There is one Jesus Christ, than whom nothing is more excellent. Therefore run together as into one temple of God, as to one altar, as to one Jesus Christ, who came forth from one Father, and is with and has gone to one. -ch 7

… whatsoever you do, may prosper both in the flesh and spirit; in faith and love; in the Son, and in the Father, and in the Spirit; in the beginning and in the end; with your most admirable bishop, and the well-compacted spiritual crown of your presbytery, and the deacons who are according to God. Be subject to the bishop, and to one another, as Jesus Christ to the Father, according to the flesh, and the apostles to Christ, and to the Father, and to the Spirit; that so there may be a union both fleshly and spiritual. -ch 13
These are well in line with Trinitarian teaching.
(cont)
Dear Catholic Dude,

And yet these facts remain:

1.) On the balance of it all, simply by their calling Jesus “God” does not, in any way, prove that they unequivically believed that Jesus was “God” in the very same way as the Trinity doctrine came to be later declared, some 300+ years after the Christ.

2.) Their mention of the three (as also within Matthew 28:19, 20) does, in no way, prove what is declared within the claims of the much later Trinity doctrine.

Again, I would ask some prayerful consideration of the contents within the following link:

Some Powerful Reasoning’s About the Trinity,
Not So Easily Dismissed


Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
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JohnOneOne:
With respect to your comment,

“You can’t be faulted for asking for a second opinion-it’s just that there is no reliable way to get one in spite of the fact that many continue to try.”

I believe what the Bible tells us:

“All scripture is inspired by God and is useful for teaching, for refutation, for correction, and for training in righteousness, so that one who belongs to God may be competent, equipped for every good work.” – 2 Timothy 3:16, 17 (Catholic New American who Bible).

Quite interestingly, one of their footnotes to this has:

“[16-17] Useful for teaching . . . every good work: because as God’s word the scriptures share his divine authority. It is exercised through those who are ministers of the word.”
You seem to be misled as to WHO the minister of the word is. If just anyone presumes to be, this is where they are in error. The Church has always known itself to be that “pillar and foundation of truth” spoken of in 1st Timothy, rather than impostors who came centuries later and picked up a book, the bible, which the Catholic Church had compiled and had a part in creating. This notion that individuals or groups outside of that Church which God established can pick up a book and magically know what Christianity means-what God wishes for us to know- is quite fanciful and the fact that whole churches, institutions, or societies, however big or small, successful or unsuccessful, have been built around this notion in no way lends credence to it.
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JohnOneOne:
With respect to your comment:

“Christianity, like all truth, is not a matter of popular vote.”

And yet, as history testifies, on the road to the eventual development of the Trinity doctrine, a vote was taken in 325c.e.
Again, there seems to be a misunderstanding. Had a popular vote prevailed, it would be as if those “Catholics” who promote abortion were to bring that issue to the table and then proceed to have a pro-abortion stance voted into Catholic dogma. In the case of Arianism, the vote was taken by those who had rightful authority and God, the one who established His Church, His “pillar and foundation of truth” ensured that a popular myth called Arianism would not prevail.
 
…This is very powerful testimony to the Divinity of Jesus whom is called God the Word and CO-CREATOR of all things. It is simply blasphemous for a creation to be co-creator…
Dear Catholic Dude:

“It appears to me upon all occasions most unbecoming and presumptuous for us to say what God can do, and what he cannot do; and I shall never think that the truth or the importance of a conclusion warrants any degree of irreverence in the method of attaining it. The power exerted in making the most insignificant object out of nothing by a word is manifestly so unlike the greatest human exertions, that we have no hesitation in pronouncing that it could not proceed from the strength of man; and when we take into view the immense extent, and magnificence, and beauty of the things thus created, the different orders of spirits, as well as the frame of the material world, our conceptions of the power exerted in creation are infinitely exalted. But we have no means of judging whether this power must be exerted immediately by God, or whether it many be delegated by him to a creature. It is certain that God has no need of any minister to fulfil his pleasure. He may do by himself every thing that is done throughout the universe. Yet we see that in the ordinary course of providence he withdraws himself, and employs the ministry of other beings; and we believe that, at the first appearance of the Gospel, men were enabled by the divine power residing in them to perform miracles, i.e. such works as man cannot do, to cure the most inveterate diseases by a word, without any application of human art, and to raise the dead. Although none of these acts imply a power equal to creation, yet as all of them imply a power more than human, they destroy the general principle of that argument upon which creation is made an unequivocal proof of Deity in him who creates. And it becomes a very uncertain conjecture, whether reasons perfectly unknown to us might not induce the Almighty to exert, by the ministry of a creature, powers exceeding in any given degree those by which the apostles of Jesus raised the dead.”

Taken from Trinitarian scholar: Hill, George (b.1750-d.1819), D.D., F.R.S.E., Principal of St. Mary’s College, St. Andrews. Lectures in Divinity. 4th Edition. 2 vols. (Edinburgh, Scotland: 1837), vol. I [1], pp. 333, 334.

And, to which, I wholeheartedly agree!

Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
…Again, there seems to be a misunderstanding. Had a popular vote prevailed, it would be as if those “Catholics” who promote abortion were to bring that issue to the table and then proceed to have a pro-abortion stance voted into Catholic dogma. In the case of Arianism, the vote was taken by those who had rightful authority and God, the one who established His Church, His “pillar and foundation of truth” ensured that a popular myth called Arianism would not prevail.
Dear fhansen,

And yet, as the history books also inform us, with respect to those of whom had a right to be there, not everbody came. Therefore, unknown to the masses, the future doctrine of the “Church” concerning God and the Christ was determined (by vote) by a few and not the many.

Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
1.) On the balance of it all, simply by their calling Jesus “God” does not, in any way, prove that they unequivically believed that Jesus was “God” in the very same way as the Trinity doctrine came to be later declared, some 300+ years after the Christ.
You need to realize the understanding developed over time but the essence and truth was certainly there. They held that the Son was Divine, and that terms like “only begotten” and “Son” signified a special and very unique relationship with the “Father”. Just because they didnt yet come up with terminology like “one God in three Persons” and “Three Persons, One Divine Nature”, etc doesnt mean they didnt hold to the essentials like the Divinity of the Son.
2.) Their mention of the three (as also within Matthew 28:19, 20) does, in no way, prove what is declared within the claims of the much later Trinity doctrine.
You are assuming developing the truth is the same as inventing a new truth, that is incorrect. The Apostolic Fathers quoted places like Mat 28:19f, as I showed above Ignatius says that the three possess “equal honor”.

Again, I would ask some prayerful consideration of the contents within the following link:

[
Some Powerful Reasoning’s About the Trinity,
Not So Easily Dismissed
](http://www.geocities.com/goodcompanionbooks/Some_Powerful_Reasonings.html) That a doctrine so strange, so liable to misapprehension, so fundamental as this is said to be, and requiring such careful exposition, should be left so undefined and unprotected, to be made out by inference, and to be hunted through distant and detached parts of Scripture, – this is a difficulty, which, we think, no ingenuity can explain.
Just because something is difficult to explain doesnt mean it isnt true. Further the “left undefined and unprotected” is a false argument considering the fact that heresies of all sorts arose based on misunderstanding Scripture, for example people denying the physical resurrection of Christ. The truth is it was not left “undefined and unprotected” for that is precisely what the Early Church Fathers, successors of the Apostles, did against all kinds of heresies. That quote has the Sola Scriptura mindset in which the Scriptures are seen not as guidelines but, incorrectly, as a systematic theology textbook.But the fact is, that not a whisper of objection to Christianity on that account reaches our ears from the apostolic age. In the Epistles we see not a trace of controversy called forth by the Trinity.
This isnt quite true for people like Ignatius were some of the earliest writers in the late Apostolic age and he explicitly cites problems with people not believing certain doctrines. As for the NT Epistles not showing an controversy, that is an argument from silence. With regard however to this doctrine [the Trinity], which if it had ever been taught, the believing Jews must have received with the utmost difficulty, and to which the unbelieving Jews would have manifested the most determined opposition, – with regard to this doctrine, there is not trace of any controversy.
This is simply silly, there is considerable evidence of controversy as well as difficulty. 1 Jn 2 comes to mind:22Who is the liar? It is the man who denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a man is the antichrist—he denies the Father and the Son. 23No one who denies the Son has the Father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also.
These people, especially the Jews, abhor the concept of “Fathef” and “Son”.It would have been utterly impossible that our Lord’s contemporaries, his Apostles, his companions and disciples, or that the historians of his life, and miracles, and sufferings, should have written and spoken of him, have conversed with him, and behaved to him with all the familiarity which they always manifested, if they believed that Christ was in truth the very and eternal God. Let us for a moment place ourselves in their situation; and we shall feel at once, that the instant the amazing truth was communicated to them, their faculties would be absorbed in terror and astonishment; – no more free conversation, no more asking of questions: no more attempts to impose upon him or to rebuke him: the greatest awe and distance would instantaneously take place, and all the endearing and familiar relations of master, instructor, companion and friend, would be absorbed in the overwhelming apprehension of their Maker and their God.
This is anything but “powerful reasoning” because the Gospels clearly testify the ASTONISHMENT of the Apostles to the teachings and actions of Jesus. NOTHING made sense to them until after Jesus rose from the dead, then the pieces started coming together. Lets not forget St Thomas, “My Lord and my God!” , and passages like John 1 were written AFTER the resurrection.
(cont)
 
To acknowledge Jesus as the Christ, or Jesus as Lord, which is essentially the same thing, was the one fundamental article of the Christian faith. Much, indeed, was involved in this confession; but it is now, I suppose, fully established and generally admitted that the Jews in the time of Christ had no expectation that the coming Messiah would be an incarnation of Jehovah, and no acquaintance with the mystery of the Trinity.
What kind of reasoning is this? Of course the Jews werent expecting the Messiah to come in the way He did, that is why the Apostles were so confused. Yet after the resurrection we read things like the “Word became flesh and dwelt among us” which is an astonishing revelation for a Messiah who was thought to be merely a earthly king with great success on the battlefield.[The Trinity] is not clearly or explicitly taught anywhere in Scripture, yet it is widely regarded as a central doctrine, indispensable to the Christian faith. In this regard, it goes contrary to what is virtually an axiom of biblical doctrine, namely, that there is a direct correlation between the scriptural clarity of a doctrine and its cruciality to the faith and life of the church
That is if you believe Jesus left the Bible behind when He ascended to Heaven and left people to fend for themselves. The NT was never intended to be a theology textbook, it was guidelines along with successors of the Apostles to help explain and defend against error. What is amazing, however, is that this confession of God as One in Three took place without significant struggle and without controversy by a people [the Jews] indoctrinated for centuries in the faith of the one God
This is a joke considering the Gospels were almost entirely about the fact Jesus came and caused a scandal because of the way He came and the divine authority he acted with. This very much was a scandal/struggle. Can you imagine the Jews just getting over the fact the Messiah was crucified?Why is it that whenever there was an occasion for discussing the identity of the one, true God, the authors and participants of Scripture always spoke of him as “the Father” and never as “the triune God”?
This argument fails to realize that calling God “the Father” was revolutionary, especially along side saying the Father has an “only begotten Son”. That is clear evidence that a new distinction was being made in the NT times.Now if Jesus were the infinite God, would he be preached as Messiah? Messiah was to be only king of the Jews, not God. Would the apostles deliberately ignore the awful [meaning, great] assertion of the Deity of Jesus, and place all their emphasis on the comparatively trivial Messiahship?
This person has failed to understand a key aspect of the NT. The Messiah did NOT DO as was expected, he came to DIE!! There was nothing “trivial” about this Messiahship for it went beyond a human kingdom (Acts 2:33-36). The first teachers of Christianity were never charged by the Jews (who unquestionably believed in the strict unity of God), with introducing any new theory of the Godhead.
That is false by the plain fact John DEFINES the “Anti-Christ” as someone who does not believe Jesus is the only begotten SON of the Father. Speaking of God using terms like “Father” and “Son” are very much new terminology.
 
Quote:

That to me is an unacceptable use of an ellipsis (…) it was a single half sentence separated by 5 pages. Now the question is what was said between pages 299 and 304, I can only imagine, but what is clear at this point is that the source is not making the Trinity out to be some un-Biblical pagan invention, you seem to have highlighted the purely “negative” references giving the impression there is no support for the Divinity of the Son either in the Apostolic Fathers or Scripture.
Code:
Yes, you are right, I should have been more careful in my quoting of the work.  As to what is included between pages 299 and 304, as I stated before, if you wish for me to send you the complete photo-copy of the "Trintiy" portion of the *New Catholic Encyclopedia*, email me your address and I'd be more than happy to send it to you.

With respect to the portion that I had left out, first, this still does not change the force/implication of their having admitted a "negative," that is, in that they establish the fact that, when it comes to the Trinity doctrine:

"Among the Apostolic Fathers, there had been nothing even remotely approaching such a mentality or perspective."

Secondly, with respect to their claim:

"...the triadic mystery is at least *implicitly* the word of God."

I would ask your consideration of the following:

"…the doctrine of inference [within the Bible] ought never to be placed on a footing of equality with a doctrine of direct and explicit revelation."

Taken from: Carlile, James (b.?-d.?).  *Jesus Christ, the Great God our Saviour: Being a View of the Doctrine of Scripture Respecting the Deity of the Son as Connected with the Deity of the Father and of the Holy Ghost.*  (Dublin, Ireland: Westley and Tyrrell, 1828).  OCLC: 9715335.

"It cannot be too often repeated that, in the proper sense of the terms, no creed, confession or formula of faith can be found in the New Testament….What is manifest on every page is a common body of doctrine, definite in outline and regarded by everyone as the possession of no individual but of the Church as a whole."

Taken from: Kelly, John Norman Davidson (b.1909-d.1997).  *Early Christian Creeds.*  2nd Edition.  (London, England: Longmans, 1960), pp. 24-25.  BT990 .K4 1960 / 60-05180.

And, to this, I would also add, there is no teaching of any Trinity doctrine (that is, as had been eventually composed by a minority, some 300+ years later) within the Bible.

On that note, again, I would invite serious consideration of the contents within the following weblink:

[Some Powerful Reasoning's About the Trinity, Not So Easily Dismissed](http://www.geocities.com/goodcompanionbooks/Some_Powerful_Reasonings.html)

Contained therein, are these very insightful remarks:

"Christianity, it must be remembered, was planted and grew up amidst sharp-sighted enemies, who overlooked no objectionable part of the system, and who must have fastened with great earnestness on a doctrine involving such apparent contradictions as the Trinity.  We cannot conceive an opinion against which the Jews, who prided themselves on an adherence to God’s unity, would have raised an equal clamor.  Now, how happens it that in the apostolic writings, which relate so much to objections against Christianity, and to the controversies which grew out of this religion, not one word is said implying that objections were brought against the gospel from the doctrine of the Trinity, not one word is uttered in its defence and explanation, not a word to rescue it from reproach and mistake?  This argument has almost the force of demonstration.  We are persuaded that had three divine persons been announced by the first preachers of Christianity, all equal and all infinite, one of whom was the very Jesus who had lately died on the cross, this peculiarity of Christianity would have almost absorbed every other, and the great labor of the Apostles would have been to repel the continual assaults which it would have awakened.  But the fact is, that not a whisper of objection to Christianity on that account reaches our ears from the apostolic age.  In the Epistles we see not a trace of controversy called forth by the Trinity."

As taken from: Channing, William Ellery (b.1780-d.1842), D.D.  *Unitarian Christianity; A Discourse on Some of the Distinguishing Opinions of Unitarians, Delivered at [the Ordination of Rev. Jared Sparks (b.1789- d.1866) in The First Independent Church of] Baltimore, May 5, 1819.*  Centenary Edition. “Introduction” signed by: E. M. W. [Wilbur, Earl Morse (b.1866-d.1956)].  (Boston, Massachusetts: American Unitarian Association, 1919), Heading II [2], Subheading 1. BX9843.C5 S55 1919 / 21-017181.

Agape, Alan.
[email]john1one@earthlink.net[/email]
"What About John 1:1?"
[Good Companion Books](http://www.goodcompanionbooks.com)
 
…Speaking of God using terms like “Father”…are very much new terminology.
Dear Catholic Dude,

Deut. 32:6 - “Is the LORD to be thus repaid by you, O stupid and foolish people? Is he not your father who created you? Has he not made you and established you?”

Isa. 63:15, 16 - “Look down from heaven and regard us from your holy and glorious palace! Where is your zealous care and your might, your surge of pity and your mercy? O Lord, hold not back, for you are our father. Were Abraham not to know us, nor Israel to acknowledge us, You, LORD, are our father, our redeemer you are named forever.”

Isa. 64:7 - “Yet, O LORD, you are our father; we are the clay and you the potter: we are all the work of your hands.”

Malachi 1:6 - “A son honors his father, and a servant fears his master; If then I am a father, where is the honor due to me? And if I am a master, where is the reverence due to me?-- So says the LORD of hosts to you, O priests, who despise his name. But you ask, “How have we despised your name?””

Malachi 2:10 - “Have we not all the one Father? Has not the one God created us? Why then do we break faith with each other, violating the covenant of our fathers?”

John 8:41b - “…they [the Jews] said to him [Jesus], “We are not illegitimate. We have one Father, God.””

All quotations were taken from the Catholic New American Bible. Interestingly, where “LORD” appears above, within their prefaces they use “Yahweh.” And yet, within the text itself, it appears nowhere.

Deut. 4:2 - “In your observance of the commandments of the LORD, your God, which I enjoin upon you, you shall not add to what I command you nor subtract from it.”

Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
hey johnoneone,

All what i said is True, i felt the same thing during my bible studies with the JW’s. I only believe the JW resources are true and the other information are from satan, The reason i stop studying with the them is that they could not longer answer my questions.

thanks to catholic answers, i found my way back to the true church of Christ.
To any who have been following the dialogue preceeding this comment, it should be clearly observed that what marlo has said above is simply not true.

I would sincerely invite him to return to his Bible studies with the Witnesses, that is, in order to learn more correctly.

Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
hey johnoneone,

All what i said is True, i felt the same thing during my bible studies with the JW’s. I only believe the JW resources are true and the other information are from satan, The reason i stop studying with the them is that they could not longer answer my questions.

thanks to catholic answers, i found my way back to the true church of Christ.
Dear marlo,

I hope you can see from what I have posted throughout my time here that Jehovah’s Witnesses certainly do not believe that only their “resources are true and the other information are from satan.” Nothing could be further from the truth. On that note, one need only to examine the resources within such works as, Reasoning from the Scriptures, and their Insight on the Scriptures to see that such a view is, simply, not true.

Sad to say, not all of Jehovah’s Witnesses are as qualified as they might need to be, that is, in order to effectively address all the questions that different ones might raise.

Again, I would only ask that you give them another chance to address each and every one of your issues, even if it requires them to do a bit more research for you.

Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
…if you can show them [Jehovah’s Witnesses] using their own resources that what they are teaching is wrong, then you can prove your point.

Start on the small things…my favorite is the Cross, they call it torture stake, use their bible to show they are wrong.

Mat 27:37 And set up over his head his accusation written, THIS IS JESUS THE KING OF THE JEWS.

on the JW publication, “live forever in paradise on earth” or any picture of christ on their torture stake, shows that the accusation is over his hands. which is indeed wrong as per their own bible.

And in John 20:25, you can see that the nails are in plural form which shows the traditional cross (T), unlike in the torture stake it shows only one

Jhn 20:25 The other disciples therefore said unto him, We have seen the Lord. But he said unto them, Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not believe.
Dear marlo (and any others interested),

First: Mention within scripture (Matthew 27:37) of the sign being “over his head” but then portrayed within Watchtower publications as being ‘over his hands’ is certainly not contradictory. For a certainty, ‘over his hands,’ which were ‘over his head,’ can still mean that the sign was “over his head.” No contradiction there.

Second: Mention within scripture (John 20:25) of the “print of the nails,” might I suggest consideration of the following:

“No man today can know with certainty even how many nails were used in Jesus’ case. The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia (1979, Volume 1, page 826) comments: “The exact number of nails used . . . has been the subject of considerable speculation. In the earliest depictions of the crucifixion Jesus’ feet are shown separately nailed, but in later ones they are crossed and affixed to the upright with one nail.””

“We do know that his hands or arms were not simply bound, for Thomas later said: “Unless I see in his hands the print of the nails.” (John 20:25) That could have meant a nail through each hand, or the plural “nails” might have reference to nail prints in ‘his hands and his feet.’ (See Luke 24:39.) We cannot know precisely where the nails pierced him, though it obviously was in the area of his hands. The Scriptural account simply does not provide exact details, nor does it need to.”

As taken from The Watchtower, 1987, 8/15, p. 29.

Therefore, contrary to the notion that there is a contradiction here, although more typically Watchtower publications are known to portray Jesus (on the stake) with his hands above his head and overlapping, thus, with one nail, as can be seen by the above, the actual official postion which the Watchtower takes is this: "“Unless I see in his hands the print of the nails.” (John 20:25) That could have meant a nail through each hand, or the plural “nails” might have reference to nail prints in ‘his hands and his feet.’ (See Luke 24:39.)”

Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
It is contradictory, why? because the saint said it right!, and the bible illustrate it correctly. Over the head is not Over the hands. If its really over the hand, then saint would said so right?

and in the nail prints. The scripture said nails. and not nail prints. the scripture said it correctly and its inspired, no literal translation is needed. and the JW interpretation is wrong.
Dear marlo (and any others interested),

First: Mention within scripture (Matthew 27:37) of the sign being “over his head” but then portrayed within Watchtower publications as being ‘over his hands’ is certainly not contradictory. For a certainty, ‘over his hands,’ which were ‘over his head,’ can still mean that the sign was “over his head.” No contradiction there.

Second: Mention within scripture (John 20:25) of the “print of the nails,” might I suggest consideration of the following:

“No man today can know with certainty even how many nails were used in Jesus’ case. The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia (1979, Volume 1, page 826) comments: “The exact number of nails used . . . has been the subject of considerable speculation. In the earliest depictions of the crucifixion Jesus’ feet are shown separately nailed, but in later ones they are crossed and affixed to the upright with one nail.””

“We do know that his hands or arms were not simply bound, for Thomas later said: “Unless I see in his hands the print of the nails.” (John 20:25) That could have meant a nail through each hand, or the plural “nails” might have reference to nail prints in ‘his hands and his feet.’ (See Luke 24:39.) We cannot know precisely where the nails pierced him, though it obviously was in the area of his hands. The Scriptural account simply does not provide exact details, nor does it need to.”

As taken from The Watchtower, 1987, 8/15, p. 29.

Therefore, contrary to the notion that there is a contradiction here, although more typically Watchtower publications are known to portray Jesus (on the stake) with his hands above his head and overlapping, thus, with one nail, as can be seen by the above, the actual official postion which the Watchtower takes is this: "“Unless I see in his hands the print of the nails.” (John 20:25) That could have meant a nail through each hand, or the plural “nails” might have reference to nail prints in ‘his hands and his feet.’ (See Luke 24:39.)”

Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
hi alan

my JW friend who talked to me is actually an MS, and is very qualified using the JW arguments,

Btw, alan, why do JW use marriage rings, dont you know that its originally used in pagan marriage rituals? and why do you greet happy holidays during christmas season, dont you know the words means happy holy days, as in christmas is a holy day?

JW Pagan free? ah ah.
Dear marlo,

I hope you can see from what I have posted throughout my time here that Jehovah’s Witnesses certainly do not believe that only their “resources are true and the other information are from satan.” Nothing could be further from the truth. On that note, one need only to examine the resources within such works as, Reasoning from the Scriptures, and their Insight on the Scriptures to see that such a view is, simply, not true.

Sad to say, not all of Jehovah’s Witnesses are as qualified as they might need to be, that is, in order to effectively address all the questions that different ones might raise.

Again, I would only ask that you give them another chance to address each and every one of your issues, even if it requires them to do a bit more research for you.

Agape, Alan.
john1one@earthlink.net
“What About John 1:1?”
Good Companion Books
 
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