Jeremiah 4:9-10, RSVCE contradicts NAB

[ethereality]

RSV Jeremiah 4:9-10:

[9] “In that day, says the LORD, courage shall fail both king and princes; the priests shall be appalled and the prophets astounded.”
[10] Then I said, "Ah, Lord GOD, surely thou hast utterly deceived this people and Jerusalem, saying, `It shall be well with you’; whereas the sword has reached their very life."

NAB Jeremiah 4:9-10:

9
In that day, says the LORD, The king will lose heart, and the princes; the priests will be amazed, and the prophets stunned.
10
(3) “Alas! Lord GOD,” they will say, “You only deceived us When you said: Peace shall be yours; for the sword touches our very soul.”

(footnote 3) You only deceived us: the false prophets blame their deception on God; cf Jeremiah 14:13-16.

The RSVCE is recommended by Catholic Answers staff, yet it contradicts the NAB and is confusing, the narrator apparently accusing God of deception. (Recall the story in 2 Kings, I think it is, where God asks his court who will go to deceive the king so that he’ll go off and die in battle? Does this passage give supporting evidence to that one, that God sometimes deceives people?)

The NAB, endorsed by the USCCB, instead clearly says it’s the false prophets accusing God of such deception.

What am I supposed to believe? What is correct?

 

[diggerdomer]

RSV Jeremiah 4:9-10:

NAB Jeremiah 4:9-10: The RSVCE is recommended by Catholic Answers staff, yet it contradicts the NAB and is confusing, the narrator apparently accusing God of deception. (Recall the story in 2 Kings, I think it is, where God asks his court who will go to deceive the king so that he’ll go off and die in battle? Does this passage give supporting evidence to that one, that God sometimes deceives people?)

The NAB, endorsed by the USCCB, instead clearly says it’s the false prophets accusing God of such deception.

If you’re forcing someone to choose between the CA staff and the USCCB (which I think is a false opposition) then on what grounds would a Catholic not follow the Bishops?

What am I supposed to believe? What is correct?

 

[EphelDuath]

A person saying “God has deceived us” does not mean that God is a liar, only that this person thinks it is the case.

 

[Luke65]

A person saying “God has deceived us” does not mean that God is a liar, only that this person thinks it is the case.

That is correct. Notice that Jeremiah explicitly states that he said this. But every thought or statement from a prophet is not necessarily true. What is true is that Jeremiah made the statement, which he infallibly recorded.

 

[NHInsider]

And, incidentally, “endorsement” by the USCCB doesn’t necessarily mean “this footnote is definitively correct.”

It is difficult but true that we do not always know precisely what a phrase or word in Scripture means. Fortunately as we are not literalists, our faith is not endangered by these complicated bits.

 

[EphelDuath]

I should probably also say something about the context of this passage, but I have not studied the Book of Jeremiah yet; so perhaps somebody else could take a stab at it?

 

[BabyFang]

They seem pretty much the same to me. That’s why you should always read your footnotes.

 

[rocketrob]

The Douay-Rheims changes it slightly to the form of a question, but I think the intent is basically the same:

9 And it shall come to pass in that day, saith the Lord: That the heart of the king shall perish, and the heart of the princes: and the priests shall be astonished, and the prophets shall be amazed. 10 And I said: Alas, alas, alas, O Lord God, hast thou then deceived this people and Jerusalem, saying: You shall have peace: and behold the sword reacheth even to the soul? (Jer 4:9-10)

Bernard Orchard’s “A Commentary on Catholic Scripture” has notes similar to the NAB footnote, stating that a better translation would be ‘they said’ and referring to the false prophets in Jer 14:15.

Meanwhile, Haydock’s Commentary has the following entries:

Ver. 9. Heart; counsel and vigour. — Prophets of falsehood.

Ver. 10. Alas! Protestants, “Then I said: Ah! Lord God, surely thou hast deceived,” &c., (Haydock) by permitting the people to follow false prophets, Isaias lxi. 17., and Psalm xliii. 19.

However, I have been unable to find the reference to Isaiah referred to in the note for verse 10. It looks like Isa 61:17 is being referenced, but that chapter only has 11 verses in it. I would appreciate if anyone can help me figure this out.

rocketrob

 

[crowcounty]

RSV Jeremiah 4:9-10:

NAB Jeremiah 4:9-10: The RSVCE is recommended by Catholic Answers staff, yet it contradicts the NAB and is confusing, the narrator apparently accusing God of deception. (Recall the story in 2 Kings, I think it is, where God asks his court who will go to deceive the king so that he’ll go off and die in battle? Does this passage give supporting evidence to that one, that God sometimes deceives people?)

The NAB, endorsed by the USCCB, instead clearly says it’s the false prophets accusing God of such deception.

What am I supposed to believe? What is correct?

the athor is stating the truth of the circumstance of the officials believing that they are doings god work when infact they have decieved themselves but the difference in translation rsv is gk the other is probably hebrew