J
Joel_Tunnah
Guest
It keeps being mentioned that wind, breath, and spirit are all valid translations of the word. I understand that. But what I do not understand, and what no one has yet explained is why, when presented with the choices wind, breath, or spirit - all equally valid - a catholic translation would choose wind?
One thing that sets apart Catholicism from protestants is the body of knowledge and tradition, spanning 2000 years, that is the Church. The Church believed, and St Jerome translated that the Spirit of God moved over the waters. What is the compelling reason to change that? Making the OT more “authentic”? More Jewish? Last time I checked, the Septuagint that Jerome used was a Jewish translation from 250BC. Even they used the word Spirit. The Masoretic Text preferred by liberals is from 700 AD, and is known to contain changes to the messianic prophecies.
This seems so obviously a problem to me, but obviously not to most of you here. I’ll gladly drop it now, but I just had to mention that again.
One thing that sets apart Catholicism from protestants is the body of knowledge and tradition, spanning 2000 years, that is the Church. The Church believed, and St Jerome translated that the Spirit of God moved over the waters. What is the compelling reason to change that? Making the OT more “authentic”? More Jewish? Last time I checked, the Septuagint that Jerome used was a Jewish translation from 250BC. Even they used the word Spirit. The Masoretic Text preferred by liberals is from 700 AD, and is known to contain changes to the messianic prophecies.
This seems so obviously a problem to me, but obviously not to most of you here. I’ll gladly drop it now, but I just had to mention that again.