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followingtheway
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An asexual is someone with no sexual attractions. Would this describe Jesus? How about the angles and even demons?
Actually, no. In general, the word “asexual” indicates the absense of reproductive organs in a biological entity, or reproduction without those organs. Your definition is one that shows up as a third definition in some dictionaries and not at all in others. In any case it is an adjective, not a noun. So technically, an asexual person is a person without sex organs. Jesus was not an asexual person.An asexual is someone with no sexual attractions. Would this describe Jesus? How about the angles and even demons?
This may be leading us to Eric’s point that the term “attraction” may not be appropriate, but I do think there is an important distinction between “attraction” and “lust” (this comes up all the time on the moral theology forum!) Did Jesus lust? No, that would have been impossible. But since he was human, in all likelihood he was a sexual being. Priests are called to celibacy but we have nothing wrong with acknowledging that they have sexual orientations even if they never act on them (though, because they are human, they can and do sin like the rest of us.)If Jesus was sinless and celibate, how could He have felt sexual attraction? He said that’s committing adultery in one’s heart!
Thanks for the info!This is in answer to Silicasandra. There is one pericope in the New Testament that does show Jesus in a sexually charged situation. In Luke 7:38-40, a woman who is looking on at a banquet lets down her hair and wipes her tears off Jesus’ feet. Just the act of letting her hair down was enough for a charge of adultery. The Pharisee’s rhetorical question about did Jesus know who was touching his feet is a sexual double entrendre in Greek. The touching of feet is euphemistic in Hebrew for touching genitals. Though the speaker is a Pharisee and is supposed to be purer than other Jews, he is still thinking like a man. Jesus does none of this and comes out the winner in this encounter. He not only bests the Pharisees as a group in rabbinical argument, but he also puts them in a situation where they have to accept the woman back into the community.
Thus we see that Jesus is well aware of what is in men’s and women’s hearts. He can see the Pharisee is thinking sexually, but the woman is doing an act of devotion. Their backgrounds, exalted or debased, are not the source of His recognition of their states.
Why not? We are His creation, after all. He must have seen the beauty in us to create us out of love. He would not have created us if we were repulsive to Him.Do you honestly think that someone who, even though he was all man, was also all God, would be attracted to a mere creature?![]()
Sexual attraction is lust (and visa versa).Actually, no. In general, the word “asexual” indicates the absense of reproductive organs in a biological entity, or reproduction without those organs. Your definition is one that shows up as a third definition in some dictionaries and not at all in others. In any case it is an adjective, not a noun. So technically, an asexual person is a person without sex organs. Jesus was not an asexual person.
The question you seem to have meant was, “Did Jesus experience sexual attraction?” In the sense of lust, the answer would have to be “no.” However, Jesus is fully man as well as fully God, so my guess would be that He experienced non-lustful attraction to some women at some point. I do not believe that there is an official Church teaching on the matter.
Angels and demons are creatures of spirit, and therefore sex (including attraction) really doesn’t apply to them.
–Jen
Good point.If Jesus was sinless and celibate, how could He have felt sexual attraction? He said that’s committing adultery in one’s heart!
Supposedly.This may be leading us to Eric’s point that the term “attraction” may not be appropriate, but I do think there is an important distinction between “attraction” and “lust” (this comes up all the time on the moral theology forum!) Did Jesus lust? No, that would have been impossible. But since he was human, in all likelihood he was a sexual being. Priests are called to celibacy but we have nothing wrong with acknowledging that they have sexual orientations even if they never act on them (though, because they are human, they can and do sin like the rest of us.)
I could be wrong about this, but did Jesus not experience temptation during his life?
I think you are referring to Matthew 5:27-28If Jesus was sinless and celibate, how could He have felt sexual attraction? He said that’s committing adultery in one’s heart!
27* “You have heard that it was said,r ‘You shall not commit adultery.’
usccb.org/bible/scripture.cfm?bk=Matthew&ch=528But I say to you, everyone who looks at a woman with lust has already committed adultery with her in his heart.