S
Syrtis16
Guest
Firstly, before I begin I apologise for two specific reasons:
This question has probably been asked many times before, please bare with me.
And I may have chosen the wrong sub-forum for this particular query.
I keep hearing from atheists, at least the relatively intelligent among them, that the lack of information about both Jesus and his affect on thousands of people within contemporary sources - particularly Roman and Jewish, proves that Jesus achieved nothing remarkable during his time. They follow up this indictment by utilising NT language against itself; how could 5,000 people be fed by the implementation of a miracle, or how can a dead girl by raised back to life - without the details of this event being spread around to the point of fame, or infamy, yet failing to gain the attention of recorders and writers?
There is a list doing the rounds via atheist bloggers, that offers the names of mostly Roman historians and writers of Jesus’s time. Their complaint seems to be focused around the idea that if Jesus was as famous as the NT suggests, why does he fail to make a dent upon the commentary of contemporary outside writers and recorders?
Thank you.
This question has probably been asked many times before, please bare with me.
And I may have chosen the wrong sub-forum for this particular query.
I keep hearing from atheists, at least the relatively intelligent among them, that the lack of information about both Jesus and his affect on thousands of people within contemporary sources - particularly Roman and Jewish, proves that Jesus achieved nothing remarkable during his time. They follow up this indictment by utilising NT language against itself; how could 5,000 people be fed by the implementation of a miracle, or how can a dead girl by raised back to life - without the details of this event being spread around to the point of fame, or infamy, yet failing to gain the attention of recorders and writers?
There is a list doing the rounds via atheist bloggers, that offers the names of mostly Roman historians and writers of Jesus’s time. Their complaint seems to be focused around the idea that if Jesus was as famous as the NT suggests, why does he fail to make a dent upon the commentary of contemporary outside writers and recorders?
Thank you.