R
RyanL
Guest
My brother in Christ,
You are right. I have become frustrated in our dialog by (hopefully) my inability to properly understand what you are trying to communicate, nor properly understand the charitable nature in which you’re communicating. I will exercise more patience, and I will pray for a humble heart.
tuopaolo:
Thank you for your patience on this,
RyanL
You are right. I have become frustrated in our dialog by (hopefully) my inability to properly understand what you are trying to communicate, nor properly understand the charitable nature in which you’re communicating. I will exercise more patience, and I will pray for a humble heart.
Ok. I understand how the Nestorian example holds up to divine revelation - there could be no other way to determine this than it being “revealed”. Mary’s death, however, is a different situation alltogether. Tomorrow we could unearth a first hand, Dead Sea scrolls style documentary account of her funeral. One is a nature, which can only be revealed, the other is factual event, which can be attested to either in historical accounts or in successory teachings. Could you please explain to me how else to understand “divine revelation” in reference to Mary’s death?That’s not what I am talking about. There are differing beliefs (though one is clearly more common) about whether or not Mary died. However there are no differing beliefs as to whether the fact of whether or not Mary died – whatever it may be – is based on directly or indirectly on divine revelation.
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Let me try to illustrate the difference for you. Nestorians and orthodox Catholics disagreed with each other as to whether Christ was one divine person or two persons. But they were in full agreement with each other that whichever position is true it is a position that is based on divine revelation.
Just think about it. If theologians are making theological arguments for and against Mary dying then OBVIOUSLY those arguments are based on divine revelation.
Thank you for your patience on this,
RyanL