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veggieSDA
Guest
We all know that Jesus lived a perfect life without ever committing a sin. Do you think that Jesus would have had the same temptations to sin that everyone else does? Just trying to get some varying opinions here 
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Henning
Guest
just a verseWe all know that Jesus lived a perfect life without ever committing a sin. Do you think that Jesus would have had **the same temptations to sin **that everyone else does? Just trying to get some varying opinions here
Hebrews 4:15 (speaking of Christ)
For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, *yet *without sin
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FCEGM
Guest
Hereās a post from an earlier discussion on the topic:We all know that Jesus lived a perfect life without ever committing a sin. Do you think that Jesus would have had the same temptations to sin that everyone else does? Just trying to get some varying opinions here
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=2611982&postcount=18
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ConallCernach
Guest
Jesus went out into the wilderness and was tempted by Satan too.
Pax
Pax
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NotWorthy
Guest
Jesus was not saddled with Concupiscence, hence He wasnāt as subject to the draw to sin as we are. That doesnāt pevent one from sinning, however.
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FCEGM
Guest
He wasnāt subject in any degree to the draw of sin, being God; and, being God, He could not sin.
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NotWorthy
Guest
Well, yes and no.
Being God, Jesus could not sin. But being human, Jesus could be tempted to sin and would have to resist that temptation.
From your words, Iām getting the impression that you are saying that there was no way Jesus could even be tempted to sin. That, in my view, lessens His humanity.
Am I wrong?
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Henning
Guest
I donāt think
youāre wrongā¦Hebrews 4:15
āFor we have not an high priest
which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities;
but was in all points **tempted **like as we are, yet without sin.ā
oopsā¦someone already posted that verse
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Henning
Guest
I agree.
Jesus was tempted and enticed, but not drawn away of his own lust, as in James 1:14-15,
āBut every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.ā
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FCEGM
Guest
:yup: Consider the doctrine of the Theotokos: Mary is the Mother of God because the Person born of her is Divine. IOW, she didnāt just give birth to Christās human nature, but gave birth to a Person. The Son, the Second Person of the Divinity, took upon Himself a human nature; joined to that human nature He is known as Jesus, but there is only one Person who is undivided in Himself while being both God and Man - and it is a person who sins or not, not a nature.
So, it is not Christ Who is not fully human, it is we, in our fallen state, who are not yet fully human. Only when we by His merits are conformed to Him by divine grace will our humanity be all that it should be. Christ is the Model and Goal for humanity, not vice-versa. What could tempt Him while on earth could only come from outside of Himself. This from an earlier discussion addresses briefly the type of temptation to which He was submitted (as does the link I first posted in this present thread):
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=4227102&postcount=7
It is the common teaching (sententia communis) of the Church that in Mary concupiscence was so bound as not to have her tend in any way toward disordered desires. The teaching of the Church regarding Christ and concupiscense is of a higher theological degree (sententia fide proxima); it is generally seen by theologians as a truth of Revelation, but hasnāt yet been fully promulgated by the Church - it would be should a need to clarify it for the Faithful be recognized. (cf. Ottās Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma).
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NotWorthy
Guest
FCEGM, I (think I) understand where you are coming from. And yes, Mary was not bound by Concupiscence. But neither were Adam and Eve. And they were still able to be tied up in āApple-Gateā.
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NotWorthy
Guest
Maybe if I state it a little differently, it may help explain my thoughts.
Jesus had all the tools necessary for Him to sin. But, being who He was, He could not sin.
The temptings were there. āFather, if there is any way, let this cup pass from meā¦ but not my will, but thine be doneā. (paraphrasing).
But yes, as you said, Jesus is the full humanity that we should all be striving for.
Jesus had all the tools necessary for Him to sin. But, being who He was, He could not sin.
The temptings were there. āFather, if there is any way, let this cup pass from meā¦ but not my will, but thine be doneā. (paraphrasing).
But yes, as you said, Jesus is the full humanity that we should all be striving for.
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FCEGM
Guest
NW, what we see in the Garden is Our Lord experiencing the full force of sin upon His Person and His response to that. I.E, since mankind as a whole would not accept Jesus and become āone fleshā with Him in holiness, Jesus was forced (by the demands of love) to become one flesh with us in sin. This is what was happening in Gethsemane, and why Jesus was so upset -because He was taking our sins onto Himself; and for the first time in His human life, the sinless New Adam felt the guilt, fear, dirtiness, and desperation that is associated with
sin - something He had no āknowledgeā (intimate experience) of before. He, like His mother (and like Adam and Eve before the fall) literally had no idea what sin is like; and, as a still-sinless (guiltless) Person, He could clearly see the horror of sin - let alone the sins of ALL of us combined.
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