Jesus as Priest

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I asked a Protestant pastor the question whether Jesus regarded Himself as a priest. He responds in the following way:
There is no way possible that Jesus saw Himself as a priest. He did not have access to the Temple hierarchy and process, He did not serve in rotation, He was not in lineage for the priestly functions, and He was from the tribe of Judah, excluding Him permanently from the role. He never spoke of Himself as a priest, nor did He ever perform any priestly duties, according to the understanding at the time of the priesthood.

No evidence within the Gospel record suggests Jesus used priesthood imagery for Himself or His role and identity. His self-disclosure was, to be sure, shocking in its novelty and extreme hyperbole, such as being the son and calling God “Father,” being the Door, the Good Shepherd, the Way, Truth, and Life (allowing no other way to the Father except through Himself) and other such teachings. Never did He use Levitical identities for Himself.
I am writing a detailed response to this claim, citing Mark 12 where Jesus quotes Ps 110 in which the messiah was understood to follow the priesthood of Melchizedek. I’m also going to touch upon the Melchizedekian priesthood that existed before the fall of the golden calf and show Jesus’ connection to it. Any other points I should hit up?
 
Here’s a couple just came off the top of my head. When Jesus offered bread and wine at the Last Supper and when Jesus offered himself on the cross. Priests offer up sacrifices,
 
I asked a Protestant pastor the question whether Jesus regarded Himself as a priest. He responds in the following way:

I am writing a detailed response to this claim, citing Mark 12 where Jesus quotes Ps 110 in which the messiah was understood to follow the priesthood of Melchizedek. I’m also going to touch upon the Melchizedekian priesthood that existed before the fall of the golden calf and show Jesus’ connection to it. Any other points I should hit up?
NewAdvent.org
The typical character of the high-priest is explained by St. Paul (Hebrews 9), where the Apostle shows that while the high-priest entered the “Holy of Holies” once a year with the blood of victims, Christ, the great high-priest, offered up His own blood and entered into Heaven itself, where He “also maketh intercession for us” (Romans 8:34; see Piconio, “Trip. Expos. in Heb.”, 9).

Also NewAdvent.org
The silence of Scripture about the facts of Melchisedech’s birth and death was part of the divine plan to make him prefigure more strikingly the mysteries of Christ’s generation, the eternity of His priesthood. Abraham, patriarch and father of nations, paid tithes to Melchisedech and received his blessing. This was all the more remarkable since the priest-king was a stranger, to whom he was not bound to pay tithes, as were the children of Israel to the priests of the Aaronic line. Abraham, therefore, and Levi “in the loins of his father” (Heb. vii, 9), by acknowledging his superiority as a type of Christ (for personally he was not greater than Abraham), thereby confessed the excellence of Christ’s priesthood.
 
I asked a Protestant pastor the question whether Jesus regarded Himself as a priest. He responds in the following way:

I am writing a detailed response to this claim, citing Mark 12 where Jesus quotes Ps 110 in which the messiah was understood to follow the priesthood of Melchizedek. I’m also going to touch upon the Melchizedekian priesthood that existed before the fall of the golden calf and show Jesus’ connection to it. Any other points I should hit up?
I think he may just reiterate the point that he was speaking of the Levitical priesthood, not the Melchizadek, which you are pointing out with your reference. Had he claimed to be a Levitical priest, he would have been laughed out of town not coming from the right tribe.

The passover meal was something performed by non-priests in every household, so it is not a good image to make the point. Especially since making that point bolsters the idea that men outside of the Levitical priesthood can exercise priesthood authority in their own homes in the same way Melchizadek did. Notice that Melchizadek’s offering was bread and wine… not blood sacrifices.

Ge 14:18 And Melchizedek king of Salem brought forth bread and wine: and he was the priest of the most high God.

Bread is part of the meat (although there is no meat involved) offering of God and represents fellowship with Him. Fellowship (obedience) is better than sacrifice, the same way that Mechizadek was a higher priest than the Levites.

I think your friend will readily agree that Jesus was a priest like Melchizadek.
 
May I susggest the whole idea of Jesus as mediator, which is what a priest is? The high priests of the Temple were mediators between man and God, they were judges to ensure that the rituals were appropriate and that the law was followed, and they were teachers (if I recall correctly). They foreshadowed the coming of Jesus.

Lutheran minister and author Dietrich Bonhoeffer (executed by Nazis in April, 1945) emphasized the role of Jesus as mediator (in his 1936 book, The Cost of Discipleship) so much, as to say that we are sinning if we don’t pray to God the Father “through” Jesus who is quintessentially our Mediator. Of course, we do this at the holy sacrifice of the Mass.

That role as Mediator is rolled up in His essential priesthood.
 
I think it would good to take note of the curtain/veil, which separated the innermost part of Herod’s temple. Only the high priest was allowed to pass through the curtain/veil to offer the sacrifices for the sins of his people.

This curtain was miraculously destroyed when Jesus died on the cross (an incident described in Matthew 27:50-52).

Jesus - through His sacrifice - is the new high priest.
 
The book of Hebrews is clear about Jesus as our High Priest, especially in chapter 4. I don’t understand the pastor’s response.

Peace…

MW
 
The pastor was speaking particularly of the Levitical priesthood.
 
The point I was going to make to him though is that if you mentioned Old Testament priesthood, you have to specify whether which priesthood you’re talking about; either the Levitical, which was enforced all the way up until Jesus’ day where you had to be a Levite to be a priest, or the Melchizedekian priesthood (or Adamic priesthood because technically it can be traced back to Adam).

Here is what he wrote to me in it’s entirety to the questions I posed to him:

Was Christ a priest? If so, did Jesus make it clear that he was a priest during his earthly ministry? Did He see himself as priest?
This question, of course, depends on how you define a “priest.” In the culture of His day, Judaism (which was serious affected by both the exilic period as well as roman occupation) recognized only Levites as priests. The priesthood was solely the responsibility and privilege of the Levitical family tribe, but that specific designation was somewhat unclear by Jesus’ day. Following the Maccabean revolt and severe period, a new ruling class had emerged, commonly called the Sadducees. Simon, one of the sons of Judas Macabeus, had become the spiritual advisor as well as the military controller, when his brother was killed in some kind of skirmish. (I may have the first names wrong - I am doing this from memory.) When Simon combined the powers of military control and spiritual leadership, as the next hundred years went by, the influence of the priesthood changed from one of advocacy to one of control. That’s how the high priest could have an army at the time of Jesus.

There is no way possible that Jesus saw Himself as a priest. He did not have access to the Temple hierarchy and process, He did not serve in rotation, He was not in lineage for the priestly functions, and He was from the tribe of Judah, excluding Him permanently from the role. He never spoke of Himself as a priest, nor did He ever perform any priestly duties, according to the understanding at the time of the priesthood.

No evidence within the Gospel record suggests Jesus used priesthood imagery for Himself or His role and identity. His self-disclosure was, to be sure, shocking in its novelty and extreme hyperbole, such as being the son and calling God “Father,” being the Door, the Good Shepherd, the Way, Truth, and Life (allowing no other way to the Father except through Himself) and other such teachings. Never did He use Levitical identities for Himself.

Paul, and later Peter (or possibly earlier, depending on how one dates various writings in the New Testament age) and the writer to the Hebrews, seem to stretch the role of the priesthood to cover all believers as an identity and function, particularly as Christianity moved away from Judaism, were excluded from Judaism, and most of all, after the fall of the Temple of Herod and the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70. It was, of course, extremely distressing to the Jew of the day that the Temple and the holy city were utterly destroyed, obliterated from the earth, and wiped clean off the mountain. Jerusalem was gone, and gone in such a way that it could not be rebuilt. It was not, of course, until the Moslem inhabitants of Palestine rebuilt a new city based on Arabic values in the 7th century and later. None of what we see in modern Jerusalem is of Jewish origin, except the Wailing Wall which was the foundation of Solomon’s earlier Temple.

So, since the roots and some branches of Christianity were Jewish, the identity and functionality of the levitically-restricted priesthood was stretched into the spiritual work of all believers. Who could object after AD 70? And what did it matter if they did object? No city, no temple, no offerings, no atonement process, no sacrifices, no organized priesthood. The priesthood originally was a metaphoric model for how humans could function with one another under the greater role of The Great and Eternal High Priest Jesus. But I do not think this language is sacerdotal and explicit, but instructive and metaphoric.
 
The second question I then posed to him:

Did Christ establish a ministerial priesthood in addition to the common priesthood that all believers share?
…the controversy swirls around the role and function of the Twelve. Were they priests to the others? Spiritual leaders? Servants? Workers? Were they unique among all followers or a representative group, of which there were more (such as the 72 and others who went forth doing ministry)? I wrote an entire book about this…based on the Gospel of Luke, and following the strategy of Christ. It is called “The Simple Strategy of Jesus Christ,” and I have it in English and in Spanish. It is 160 pages long or so, in 8 1/2 x 11 format. The word “apostle” is Greek and comes from “apostelo,” to send out or to send on a commission-based role. Our word “postal” comes from it. An apostle had no “authority.” The apostle was sent out to deliver a message for the one who had the authority, but the sent messenger himself (women never did this in that culture - far too dangerous) had no authority. When Jesus invested in the Twelve the authority to preach, to heal, and to cast out demons (Luke 9), it was after their calling (Luke 6), their extensive training (Luke 6-8) and their specific deployment into a short-term role (Luke 9.) The parameters were changed when they were sent out permanently (See Luke 22:35-38.)

Peter had a mother-in-law (Matthew 8) so we know he was married. The Twelve all had homes, jobs, and families. (Judas was replaced by Matthias, but we know nothing of him.) They did not function like priests, or have exclusive jobs with the church, until maybe 20-30 years later. Paul essentially moved the role into one of occupation as Christianity went to the Gentiles. The territory was far too big and the numbers of people far too huge for the style of the Jewish home-based apostle. It was a necessary and appropriate extension.
 
I have also started writing my reply to him. Here’s what I got so far…
Jesus did not see himself as a priest? What about in Mark 12 where Jesus alludes to Psalm 110? “The Lord says to my lord: 'Sit at my right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool…YOU ARE A PRIEST FOREVER ACCORDING TO THE ORDER OF MELCHIZ’EDEK.” The figure of Psalm 110, the messiah as the Jews understood it to be, was going to be a priest like Melchizedek. Jesus applies this Psalm to himself, and I think is a clear indication of Jesus’ claim to be a priest. I think this connection of Jesus to Melchizedek is key to understanding some of the questions regarding the issue of the priesthood.
I am aware of the Levitical priesthood and how that was the priesthood in Jesus’ time, but there was another priestly order in the Old Testament that existed before the Levitical; you could call it the priesthood of Melchizedek, the Melchizedekian priesthood, or even go so far to call it the Adamic priesthood because it can be traced all the way back to Adam. Up until the time of the Exodus, every father and firstborn son would act as priest over their family, offering sacrifice, intercession, and prayers for their family. It’s only in Exodus 32 with the worship of the golden calf that the Levitical priesthood is established as being restricted to one tribe of Israel. It was this priesthood that was enforced all the way until Jesus’ day where you had to be a Levite to be a priest.
I bring this point up because I’ve come across many that know little or nothing about the original and primordial priesthood that was tied with the figure of Melchizedek. I think this is a very important distinction that needs to be established when talking about the question of Jesus’ priesthood and whether he established a ministerial priesthood. If you recall, Melchizedek’s sacrifice in the Old Testament is not a lamb or a goat but bread and wine (Gen. 14). I’ll suggest to you that this is the fundamental prototype that Jesus uses in establishing the New Covenant.
 
cont…
Therefore, I think the episode of the Last Supper would serve as the institution of such a ministerial priesthood. Christ institutes the Eucharist there as a memorial of his death and resurrection commanding his apostles to celebrate it until his return, constituting them priests of the New Covenant. Now you could object and say that the word “priest” does not appear in the Last Supper, but what does occur at the Last Supper are a series of allusions to the Old Testament that Jesus is engaging in, which are crucial to note. When Jesus takes the cup of wine and says, “Drink of this, all of you; for this is my blood of the (new) covenant, which is poured out for the many for the forgiveness of sins.” He then commands them to do this in memory of him. The phrase “blood of the covenant” is an allusion to Exodus 24. Exodus 24 is a description of the priestly sacrificial liturgy that Moses and the elders of Israel enacted at Mount Sinai, and I’m convinced Jesus isn’t making this allusion by accident. He’s pointing to the priesthood of Israel that was at Mount Sinai.
All of this comes before Exodus 32, the sin of the golden calf. Exodus 24 shows the ideal priesthood of Israel before they fell. It’s there that God is ratifying his covenant with his people. Even Protestant scholars recognize the connection with Exodus 24. This is important I think to understand or else the significance of what Christ is doing is missed.
Note also the number and circles of disciples Jesus surrounds himself with. The most famous one that everyone knows about is the Twelve apostles, and then there’s the lesser known 70/72 disciples; within the Twelve there are three particular disciples who are even more intimately linked with Jesus: Peter, James, and John. Then there’s Peter who is at the top. Jesus’ disciples are all set up with certain circles of increasing intimacy. The 70/72 disciples (the less intimate) to the 12 apostles; then the 3 within the 12 (Peter, James, and John) to Peter (the most intimate). These numbers and circles of disciples are not by accident either, oddly enough corresponding to Exodus 24 where the same numbers are present with the Old Covenant priesthood. You got Moses going up the mountain with his number one man, Aaron the high-priest, at his right-hand. Then there is Na’dab and Abi’hu in addition to Aaron who go up higher with Moses. Then there are twelve pillars set up for young men from each of the twelve tribes to offer sacrifice, meaning that they would be priests. Finally there are the 70 elders of Moses that also go up with him. Is this mere coincidence? Did Jesus not know that Exodus 24 had those numbers as well? I would suggest to you that Jesus is modeling his circles of disciples after the Old Covenant priesthood before it fell with the golden calf in Exodus 32.
 
cont…again…
Yes, apostle most certainly does come from the Greek “apostello” meaning “to send forth” or “dispatch.” They certainly were sent forth, dispatched, and entrusted with a mission, rather, a foreign mission, but the word apostle itself has a much stronger sense the word “messenger” and means as much as a delegate nor were they just simple messengers either. I also reread Luke 6-9 and find no indication from Luke 6-9 that the authority that Christ bestowed upon the apostles was short-term, and I also do not see any indication that Christ changed this authority he gave them in Luke 22:35-38.
I also think the apostles understood their roles as priests as revealed in Acts. Right in the first chapter when you read that Judas has been killed and they have to find a replacement for Judas, they cast lots. I often find that many people misunderstand this text and see the apostles making a critical decision based on a game of chance, but the ancient Judaism and Old Testament context of Acts makes sense of it. If you go back to 1 Chronicles 24, you’ll read about how priests were determined by casting lots (Oddly enough, Luke 1 mirrors much of Acts 1 in this regard. Zechariah, a priest, is selected to go into the Temple through casting of lots). The apostles are casting lots to figure out who will be the Twelfth priest.
well, that’s all i got so far. I want to make sure I address every point he’s brought up so that I might be able to use this opportunity to evangelize and share the truth of the faith. anything else I should hit upon or touch up?
 
I think he will believe that you made his case for him.

He will say that you agree that Jesus was not a Levitical priest and couldn’t have been.

Then he will be happy that you have made him a Melchizadek priest and also made the point that all men going back to Adam were priests, which is one of the main points of the reformation, the priesthood of all believers.
 
I think he will believe that you made his case for him.

He will say that you agree that Jesus was not a Levitical priest and couldn’t have been.

Then he will be happy that you have made him a Melchizadek priest and also made the point that all men going back to Adam were priests, which is one of the main points of the reformation, the priesthood of all believers.
I don’t think I run that risk. Go back and reread what I wrote. The Melchizedekian priesthood did not mean that all believers could offer sacrifice, but meant that all the fathers and the firstborn sons of the 12 tribes could.
 
Up until the time of the Exodus, every father and firstborn son would act as priest over their family, offering sacrifice, intercession, and prayers for their family.
but meant that all the fathers and the firstborn sons of the 12 tribes could.
Call me confused if you wish, but in my mind those two statements are different. And the fathers were all second sons, so how does that transfer to first sons?

Abraham wasn’t a first born son, his age doesn’t fit with the other dates mentioned. Isaac was a second son, but might be argued to be a first son as well, but only if speaking of the promise. He did not receive the blessing. Jacob was a second son, Moses was a younger than Aaron. Since Isaac did not have the blessing, Jacob received it directly from God.

The pattern of second sons inheriting foreshadows Christ as the second man who obtained the inheritance and the promise where Adam, the first man, failed.

I am not aware of any reference allowing the first born sons to offer sacrifices.

You don’t need to convince me, but may wish to consider clarifying it.
 
Read Paul;s letter to the Hebrews. You will find your answer there
Prayers & blessings
Deacon Ed B
 
Call me confused if you wish, but in my mind those two statements are different. And the fathers were all second sons, so how does that transfer to first sons?

Abraham wasn’t a first born son, his age doesn’t fit with the other dates mentioned. Isaac was a second son, but might be argued to be a first son as well, but only if speaking of the promise. He did not receive the blessing. Jacob was a second son, Moses was a younger than Aaron. Since Isaac did not have the blessing, Jacob received it directly from God.

The pattern of second sons inheriting foreshadows Christ as the second man who obtained the inheritance and the promise where Adam, the first man, failed.

I am not aware of any reference allowing the first born sons to offer sacrifices.

You don’t need to convince me, but may wish to consider clarifying it.
“All fathers and first born sons were priest”

This is what this statements mean. The origin is that all male childreen were priests and kings of their families. This means every father was not just a father but a king-priest. This is were the term ‘royal priesthood’ come from.

This is from Adam because he was called to be not just a father of humanity but also its priest-king.

All fathers were of their own family. This means all man were priest of their families. They offered/blessed/etc their families.

Now about the ‘first born’ is more related to the origina of kingship. Since a father was also a king of the family. When the family became extended and we have grand childrenn and tribes. The father of the tribe is still its priest-king. But what if he dies???
This is where his first born kicks in. Out of all his sons, his first born was supposed to be the priest-king of the whole tribe, not just his own nuclear family.
This meant that all other sons also remained priest-king of their own nuclear family, but not of the extended family.

This is where the idea that Shem is the priest-king Melkizek come from. Shem is the first born son of Noah. So after Noah death, the new head of humanity was supposed to be his first born son.

This is the model of God. I see it a a hierarchy in charity. It applied everytime there was no sin involved in the elders of the family. The only time when an other son was selected was when his elder brothers had not qualified in righteousness one way or an other.

It first-born son is the one who takes the responsability of his father over this father’s family so he become priest-king over his brothers.

God bless
 
This is the model of God. I see it a a hierarchy in charity. It applied everytime there was no sin involved in the elders of the family. The only time when an other son was selected was when his elder brothers had not qualified in righteousness one way or an other.
I appreciate your answer and I hear the words. They just do not seem to agree with what I see in scripture.

Ishmael wasn’t overlooked because of sin. God simply had promised it to Isaac.

And although Esau had his faults, the choice of Jacob was certainly not because of his righteousness. God had made the choice while they were still in womb (Gen 25:23)

These, along with many other examples simply show Christ as the second man who received the promise where Adam, the first man did not.

Thanks for the response.
 
I appreciate your answer and I hear the words. They just do not seem to agree with what I see in scripture.

Ishmael wasn’t overlooked because of sin. God simply had promised it to Isaac.

And although Esau had his faults, the choice of Jacob was certainly not because of his righteousness. God had made the choice while they were still in womb (Gen 25:23)

These, along with many other examples simply show Christ as the second man who received the promise where Adam, the first man did not.

Thanks for the response.
Hi Again.

Ismael was not the ‘rightful’ first born. According to God’s will, if we consider Jesus’ word about marriage, Abraham should not have slept with an other woman other than his own wife in the first place. In everything we have to consider God’s perfect will.
Abraham and Sarah were the couple according to God’s will. Sarah’s slave got in out of human weakness.
That’s why Isaac is the son of the promises.

These are the kind of things we can understand after the fullness of revelation in Christ Jesus.

God can see in the future but does not impose the future.
So he could see what was to happen between Esau and Jacob but did not cause it to happen to fit a patricular pattern.

God bless
 
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