G
GandalfTheWhite
Guest
Hello!
I have a question that I can’t answer on my own. I know that Jesus didn’t have any brothers as has always been taught but the Church. However there is something that confuses me and I can’t explain to myself. The Church holds that the “brothers” of Jesus were actually his relatives. There several ways to show that and the most common one says that in Aramaic and Hebrew there was one single word for brother/sister and cousin. This made perfect sense to me but than I read that there in Greek, the language of the NT, this distinction exists. So why would the author still use adelphos for close relatives and not use the proper word? Or am I wrong that he ancient Greek made such distinction (I don’t know Greek)? Thank you beforehand.
God bless!
I have a question that I can’t answer on my own. I know that Jesus didn’t have any brothers as has always been taught but the Church. However there is something that confuses me and I can’t explain to myself. The Church holds that the “brothers” of Jesus were actually his relatives. There several ways to show that and the most common one says that in Aramaic and Hebrew there was one single word for brother/sister and cousin. This made perfect sense to me but than I read that there in Greek, the language of the NT, this distinction exists. So why would the author still use adelphos for close relatives and not use the proper word? Or am I wrong that he ancient Greek made such distinction (I don’t know Greek)? Thank you beforehand.
God bless!