Jesus Curses the Fig Tree (Mk 11:12-14)

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Mark 11:
(12)On the following day, when they came from Bethany, he was hungry. (13)And seeing in the distance a fig tree in leaf, he went to see if he could find anything on it. When he came to it, he found nothing but leaves, for it was not the season for figs. (14)And he said to it, “may no one ever eat fruit from you again.” And his disciples heard it. (RSV)
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I’ve been puzzled over this passage for almost a week, and I thought I would ask if anyone has some insight.

Jesus comes to the tree, hoping to find fruit, but it has none–it only appears healthy. Then he curses the tree for only appearing to be healthy, and not actually producing good fruit. Then he proceeds to cleanse the temple, demonstrating this very reality: those who will not produce good fruits of charity and righteousness will be expelled from the temple. Then, he returns to the fig tree, which is withered, a visible sign of the reality of Israel, which is later seen more vividly in the destruction of the city following Jesus’ crucifixion. (Paraphrased from Ignatius study bible.)

That sounds like a fine and dandy explanation apart for one thing:

“It was not the time for figs.”

It seems hardly just that Jesus would curse a tree for doing what God had designed it to do, and only bear fruit during certain seasons. It’s like being mad at my car for not turning on when I haven’t put the key in the ignition. Things are designed to work in a certain sequence, and Jesus seems like he is demanding that the tree work outside that sequence, and curses it for failing to do so.

The only help I have gotten so far is from a passage one priest suggested:
“preach the word; be urgent in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort, with all longsuffering and teaching.” (2 Tim 4). However, that is far away from the context here, and we can certainly apply it, but I’m not entirely sure it does apply.

Is anyone able to shed light on my puzzlement?
 
I posted this on another thread, so I will repaste here since it applies.

Both Matthew and Mark are very careful to point out that Jesus cursed a fig tree for not bearing fruit, even though it was not the season for figs. Whenever the synoptics do something weird, they are usually trying to point out something from the Old Testament (Mark 11:12-14). Jesus’ search for ripe figs recalls God’s desire to find in Israel the fruit of righteousness and covenant fidelity, and his grief at not finding it.

Micah 7:1: “Alas…there is no cluster to eat, no early fig that I crave.”

By cursing the fig tree, Jesus is proclaiming his condemnation on Jerusalem, and his direct OT reference also makes an allusion to his own Divinity, since in the context it is God condemning Israel after searching for fruitfulness, and Jesus takes these words of the Father and applies them to himself. Hope that helps.
 
AndrewRaZ said:
I’ve been puzzled over this passage for almost a week, and I thought I would ask if anyone has some insight.

Jesus comes to the tree, hoping to find fruit, but it has none–it only appears healthy. Then he curses the tree for only appearing to be healthy, and not actually producing good fruit. Then he proceeds to cleanse the temple, demonstrating this very reality: those who will not produce good fruits of charity and righteousness will be expelled from the temple. Then, he returns to the fig tree, which is withered, a visible sign of the reality of Israel, which is later seen more vividly in the destruction of the city following Jesus’ crucifixion. (Paraphrased from Ignatius study bible.)

That sounds like a fine and dandy explanation apart for one thing:

“It was not the time for figs.”

It seems hardly just that Jesus would curse a tree for doing what God had designed it to do, and only bear fruit during certain seasons. It’s like being mad at my car for not turning on when I haven’t put the key in the ignition. Things are designed to work in a certain sequence, and Jesus seems like he is demanding that the tree work outside that sequence, and curses it for failing to do so.

The only help I have gotten so far is from a passage one priest suggested:
“preach the word; be urgent in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort, with all longsuffering and teaching.” (2 Tim 4). However, that is far away from the context here, and we can certainly apply it, but I’m not entirely sure it does apply.

Is anyone able to shed light on my puzzlement?
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It is a puzzling passage.

Maybe Jesus just had a bad day, in his human nature?
 
Vince: That is a tempting and easy thought. It seems logical to us, because it’s easy (not natural, but easy). But it is because of our fallen nature that we wish destruction on another for being disappointed. Jesus cursing the tree “because he was having a bad day” would be a selfish act, which we know Jesus can’t do because his nature is both human and divine, and his human nature is fully submissive to his divine will. So that unfortunately doesn’t work.

Nathan: that line of thinking is originally how I was leaning, but without the Old Testament reference it was hard to begin to really understand it. Thank you for providing that citation.

Christiano: thank you, that link is awesome. It provides a lot of information that makes it much easier to understand the context of Jesus’ actions, and really puts a much better spiritual light on the passage.

Thank you and God bless you all!

–Andrew
 
AndrewRaZ said:
which we know Jesus can’t do because his nature is both human and divine, and his human nature is fully submissive to his divine will. So that unfortunately doesn’t work.
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Really? Where does the Catholic Church teach that Jesus’ human nature is fully submissive to his divine will? Thanks.
 
Vince1022 said:
Really? Where does the Catholic Church teach that Jesus’ human nature is fully submissive to his divine will? Thanks.
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Vince,

Remember, Jesus says “I come to do the Father’s will,” and in the Garden, “Abba, Father, all things are possible to you. Take this cup away from me, but not what I will but what you will.” He submitted to the will of the Father in Heaven, always.

The Church has held, and teaches formally since the early councils, that Jesus has two natures, a human nature and a divine nature; a human will, and a divine will.
CCC 475: Similarly, at the sixth ecumenical council, Constantinople III in 681, the Church confessed that Christ possesses two wills and two natural operations, divine and human. They are not opposed to each other, but cooperate in such a way that the Word made flesh willed humanly in obedience to his Father all that he had decided divinely with the Father and the Holy Spirit for our salvation.110 Christ’s human will “does not resist or oppose but rather submits to his divine and almighty will.”
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The ‘In Brief’
481: “Jesus Christ possesses two natures, one divine and the other human, not confused, but united in the one person of God’s Son.”
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I hope this helps. More than this gets into a lot of heavy Trinitarian theology.

Caritas,

–Andrew
 
Vince1022 said:
Really? Where does the Catholic Church teach that Jesus’ human nature is fully submissive to his divine will? Thanks.
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The perfect human nature is submissive to God in all things. It was Adam’s rejection of this that got us into the mess we are in. Jesus is the second Adam with a perfect human nature that undoes Adam’s fall.

Note that this was also Satan’s fall when he placed his will above God’s.
 
AndrewRaZ said:
I’ve been puzzled over this passage for almost a week, and I thought I would ask if anyone has some insight.

Jesus comes to the tree, hoping to find fruit, but it has none–it only appears healthy. Then he curses the tree for only appearing to be healthy, and not actually producing good fruit. Then he proceeds to cleanse the temple, demonstrating this very reality: those who will not produce good fruits of charity and righteousness will be expelled from the temple. Then, he returns to the fig tree, which is withered, a visible sign of the reality of Israel, which is later seen more vividly in the destruction of the city following Jesus’ crucifixion. (Paraphrased from Ignatius study bible.)

That sounds like a fine and dandy explanation apart for one thing:

“It was not the time for figs.”

It seems hardly just that Jesus would curse a tree for doing what God had designed it to do, and only bear fruit during certain seasons. It’s like being mad at my car for not turning on when I haven’t put the key in the ignition. Things are designed to work in a certain sequence, and Jesus seems like he is demanding that the tree work outside that sequence, and curses it for failing to do so.

The only help I have gotten so far is from a passage one priest suggested:
“preach the word; be urgent in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort, with all longsuffering and teaching.” (2 Tim 4). However, that is far away from the context here, and we can certainly apply it, but I’m not entirely sure it does apply.

Is anyone able to shed light on my puzzlement?
Click to expand...
First of all, in order to get a clear sense of what Jesus was teaching by this parable, it is important to realize that the fig tree only produces figs when in leaf. Sometimes these trees would produce fruit twice a year, therefore, when one saw a fig tree in leaf, it was only natural to assume that there would be fruit as well.

So, Jesus, when He saw this fig tree that demonstrated the outward appearance of producing fruit, got a closer look and saw no fruit, it was a tree that misled one and therefore was a “hypocrite” - just as the Jewish chief Priests and Scribes were. They were often called hypocrites by Jesus, and the verse between the two parables of the fig tree in Mark 11, was about the chief Priests and Scribes who taught one thing, yet did another, even going so far as to cheat honest Jewish people in the Temple in the money exchanging.

Therefore, Jesus cursed the fig tree (representative of the hypocritcal Jewish religious leaders) for misleading the people.

blessings, 🙂
 
Cristiano said:
Because he does not suffer of concupiscence.
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That is not the same as saying his human nature was fully submissive to his divine will.

The issue of “will” was addressed by an ecumenical council (Constantinople III, 680-681 A.D.) which condemned the idea that Christ had only one “will.”
 
AndrewRaZ said:
Vince,

Remember, Jesus says “I come to do the Father’s will,” and in the Garden, “Abba, Father, all things are possible to you. Take this cup away from me, but not what I will but what you will.” He submitted to the will of the Father in Heaven, always.

The Church has held, and teaches formally since the early councils, that Jesus has two natures, a human nature and a divine nature; a human will, and a divine will.

The ‘In Brief’

I hope this helps. More than this gets into a lot of heavy Trinitarian theology.

Caritas,

–Andrew
Click to expand...
The issue of “will” was addressed by an ecumenical council (Constantinople III, 680-681 A.D.) which condemned the idea that Christ had only one “will.”

Hope this helps. As you note, this does indeed get into a lot of heavy Trinitarian theology. Yet, the teaching of ecumenical councils on this point is clear.
 
Joe_Kelley said:
The perfect human nature is submissive to God in all things. It was Adam’s rejection of this that got us into the mess we are in. Jesus is the second Adam with a perfect human nature that undoes Adam’s fall.

Note that this was also Satan’s fall when he placed his will above God’s.
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I don’t understand how that answered my question…are you saying Jesus had a perfect human will? Or something else? Thanks.
 
Vince1022 said:
The issue of “will” was addressed by an ecumenical council (Constantinople III, 680-681 A.D.) which condemned the idea that Christ had only one “will.”

Hope this helps. As you note, this does indeed get into a lot of heavy Trinitarian theology. Yet, the teaching of ecumenical councils on this point is clear.
Click to expand...
That is correct. Jesus has two wills, and his human will is perfectly submitted to his divine will. I believe that is what I said. The CCC paragraph I cited (475) references the Constantinople III documents.

In my first response to your question, I mixed the words “nature” and “will” and used them interchangeably. I tried to correct that later. What I should have said is: "…we know Jesus can’t do because his nature is both human and divine, and his human will is fully submissive to his divine will. "

So to make it clear, Jesus has two natures: human and divine. He is fully human and fully God. Jesus has two wills: human and divine. His human *will *is perfectly bent to his divine will.

Please forgive me for making this unclear.

Caritas,

–Andrew
 
AndrewRaZ said:
It seems hardly just that Jesus would curse a tree for doing what God had designed it to do, and only bear fruit during certain seasons. It’s like being mad at my car for not turning on when I haven’t put the key in the ignition. Things are designed to work in a certain sequence, and Jesus seems like he is demanding that the tree work outside that sequence, and curses it for failing to do so.
Click to expand...
Jesus also knew that His job was to “refine” the children of God (Malachi 3:1-3), knowing very well that many of the faithful would fall short of His upcoming fulfillment.

At that point the tree also fell short and was condemned.

With all the greatness that Jesus brought, He also brought condemnation.

“*Lo, I am sending my messenger to prepare the way before me; And suddenly there will come to the temple the LORD whom you seek, And the messenger of the covenant whom you desire. Yes, he is coming, says the LORD of hosts. But who will endure the day of his coming? **And who can stand when he appears? **For he is like the refiner’s fire, or like the fuller’s lye. He will sit refining and purifying (silver), and he will purify the sons of Levi, Refining them like gold or like silver that they may offer due sacrifice to the LORD.” *
 
AndrewRaZ said:
That is correct. Jesus has two wills, and his human will is perfectly submitted to his divine will. I believe that is what I said. The CCC paragraph I cited (475) references the Constantinople III documents.

In my first response to your question, I mixed the words “nature” and “will” and used them interchangeably. I tried to correct that later. What I should have said is: "…we know Jesus can’t do because his nature is both human and divine, and his human will is fully submissive to his divine will. "

So to make it clear, Jesus has two natures: human and divine. He is fully human and fully God. Jesus has two wills: human and divine. His human *will *is perfectly bent to his divine will.

Please forgive me for making this unclear.

Caritas,

–Andrew
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Got it, thanks. Appreciate the clarification! Pax et bonum.
 
AndrewRaZ said:
That is correct. Jesus has two wills, and his human will is perfectly submitted to his divine will. I believe that is what I said. The CCC paragraph I cited (475) references the Constantinople III documents.

In my first response to your question, I mixed the words “nature” and “will” and used them interchangeably. I tried to correct that later. What I should have said is: "…we know Jesus can’t do because his nature is both human and divine, and his human will is fully submissive to his divine will. "

So to make it clear, Jesus has two natures: human and divine. He is fully human and fully God. Jesus has two wills: human and divine. His human *will *is perfectly bent to his divine will.

Please forgive me for making this unclear.

Caritas,

–Andrew
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Amen. The 'bending of his human will to his divine is foreshadowed in the bruised heel of the seed of the woman, the withered thigh of Jacob and in the rib of Adam in a hidden double entendre.

Each word has multiple meanings in Hebrew:
sleep also means death
took also means married, etc.

Gen 2:21 And God caused Christ to die and he died, and he married a certain limping side and delivered mankind.
 
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