He’s referring to John 2:4 I believe. The NABRE renders it:
4 [d][And] Jesus said to her, “Woman, how does your concern affect me? My hour has not yet come.” 5 His mother said to the servers, “Do whatever he tells you.”
The RSV puts:
4 And Jesus said to her, “O woman, what have you to do with me? My hour has not yet come.” 5 His mother said to the servants, “Do whatever he tells you.”
NIV:
4 “Woman,[a] why do you involve me?” Jesus replied. “My hour has not yet come.” 5 His mother said to the servants, “Do whatever he tells you.”
Let’s assume the RSV; however, that doesn’t mean I agree with your father’s assessment of it being dismissive. For one, it’s thinking about the use of the word “woman” to 21st century English ears, which would hear it as dismissive or even insulting. That would not necessarily be the case in Aramaic or Greek. It could also be understood as a polite form of address.
In French, the word woman is also used for wife. It’s not dismissive to say “my woman” as it literally means “my wife.” (Greek is similar, actually, though I am not saying we should translate it as wife in this situation, certainly not!) Japanese has a term for the elderly that we don’t have in English, but is frequently translated as “granny” when applied to elderly women. It sounds almost insulting to my English ears to call an older woman I hardly know “granny,” but in Japanese it’s considered respectful.
Furthermore, at his crucifixion Jesus calls her “woman” again.
RSV John 19:26
26 When Jesus saw his mother, and the disciple whom he loved standing near, he said to his mother, “Woman, behold, your son!”
We hardly think of the use of “woman” in this case to be direspectful. It should be noted that Catholics also see the word choice in both these occurrences as deliberate references to Eve, for the word used for her in the Greek is the same, and its part of why Mary is often seen as the New Eve.
Then there’s the next phrase: what have you to do with me? (RSV.)
First of all, the actual Greek is “Τί ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί;” This may be the wrong path for me to take, as I’m essentially still in the very early stages of learning Greek (so someone please correct if I’m wrong), but me (ἐμοὶ) and you (σοί) are both in the dative case, meaning they are both indirect objects. It seems odd to pit one as the subject or object of the other since they’re in the same case. They are both receiving whatever is going on here, whatever action this sentence is taking is being applied to both of them, not one to the other. “καὶ” just means “and” in this verse. “Τί” means “who”, “which”, or “what (thing)” or something along those lines. The end of our analysis is seeing that this is a question (indicated by the Greek question mark “;”, so we can add a word or two to English to make it make sense as such. So watch my hubris as I render it “What is this to you and me?” Or, allow me to risk making a fool of myself, he’s essentially asking “Is this really any of our business?” (With the implication being it’s not your wedding or mine, yet. Let’s not forget the next phrase which puts Jesus’ response into context, “my hour has not yet come.” His response is to tie this into his messianic mission, to the consummation of his own wedding at the cross. It’s not a coincidence that his first public miracle was at a wedding. It’s not a simple question of whether they should get involved. This is too relevant to be an accident or a random, unplanned (by God) occurrence, which would be the conclusion from your Father’s interpretation, which makes this miracle a result of Jesus being pressured into doing it by his mother.) Hopefully someone more knowledgable of the Greek can comment on this and correct me if I’ve erred.
The phrase isn’t necessarily dismissive. Whether I’m right about the Greek, I also think we need to understand that translating from one language to the others might lose the true meaning of a phrase. “Once in a blue moon.” “When pigs fly.” Etc…
Plus, we don’t know how it was said. Perhaps it was with a smile on his face in good nature. It’s no less of an assumption to assume he was being negative or derogatory towards his mother, especially when the fourth commandment is about honoring one’s parents, and Jesus, the perfect man, stresses keeping the spirit of the law, not just its letter.
Anyway, Jesus follows through with it. I’d hardly see it as disrespectful. And what happens immediately after this? Jesus is ready to start his ministry.