This passage in Mark 13:32 has puzzled me. How was he speaking? Was it from his human nature, was it from his divine nature? How is this passage meant to be taken? If he is one with the Father, how is it he does not know the time of his coming? I am not looking for a debate, but a general rule or consensus of how this passage is to be taken.
I always took that answer to be hidden in the following. Jesus says this agout Himself. And He does this perfectly
*Jn 5:19 the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, because whatever the Father does the Son also does. *
*Jn 6:37,38 “I have come from heaven not to do my own Will, but the Will of the One who sent Me.” *
*Jn 12:49 For I did not speak of my own accord, but the Father who sent me commanded me what to say and how to say it. *
*Jn 12:50 whatever I say is just what the Father has told me to say." *
*Jn 14:10 The words I say to you are not just my own. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. *
*Jn 14:31 I do exactly what my Father has commanded me. *
Lk 22:42 Not my will but yours be done
Therefore, the Father doesn’t want us to know that answer. Which makes sense, given the way humans can play games with life until they **know **they have no more time left. It’s better then to keep us humans on our toes so to speak regarding the answer to “time” in that question.
