Jesus' flesh made of the seed of David?

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Henning

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Romans 1:3
“Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord,
which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh”

How can I understand this verse with respect to the facts that Joseph was only his step-father, and Jesus was born of Mary a virgin. How I’ve read it is that according to Jesus’ physical flesh, he was made of David’s physical seed (genes) which Joseph physically inherited and passed onto Jesus…🤷 thanks for any help.
 
Henning said:
Romans 1:3
“Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord,
which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh”

How can I understand this verse with respect to the facts that Joseph was only his step-father, and Jesus was born of Mary a virgin. How I’ve read it is that according to Jesus’ physical flesh, he was made of David’s physical seed (genes) which Joseph physically inherited and passed onto Jesus…🤷 thanks for any help.
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Ancient tradition such as Proto-Gospel of James tells us that Mary was also from the line of David. The apocrypal gospels also make that claim. I agree with this evidence, but there is some room for debate by those who oppose that.
 
COPLAND_3 said:
Ancient tradition such as Proto-Gospel of James tells us that Mary was also from the line of David. The apocrypal gospels also make that claim. I agree with this evidence, but there is some room for debate by those who oppose that.
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The Gospels also record two different genealogies for Jesus, which is canonical support for Mary being a descendant of David.
 
HamtramckSteve said:
The Gospels also record two different genealogies for Jesus, which is canonical support for Mary being a descendant of David.
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Incorrect!

catholic.com/thisrock/1997/9712chap.asp
Romans 1:3
“Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord,
which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh”
Click to expand...
How can I understand this verse with respect to the facts that Joseph was only his step-father, and Jesus was born of Mary a virgin. How I’ve read it is that according to Jesus’ physical flesh, he was made of David’s physical seed (genes) which Joseph physically inherited and passed onto Jesus… thanks for any help.
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Here is the footnote for Romans 1:3-4

3 [3-4] Paul here cites an early confession that proclaims Jesus’ sonship as messianic descendant of David (cf Matthew 22:42; 2 Tim 2:8; Rev 22:16) and as Son of God by the resurrection. As “life-giving spirit” (1 Cor 15:45), Jesus Christ is able to communicate the Spirit to those who believe in him.

When you read and interpret “according to the flesh” to mean solely the genes of David passed to Jesus you are being anachronistic. As you can read in the article I posted above Jesus did not have to be of the same “genes” as David to be considered a descendent.
 
COPLAND_3 said:
Ancient tradition such as Proto-Gospel of James tells us that Mary was also from the line of David. The apocrypal gospels also make that claim. I agree with this evidence, but there is some room for debate by those who oppose that.
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also please be careful when using books that aren’t considered inspired. The Gospel of James was written in the second century and is not considered inspired by the Church. 🙂
 
RCWarrior821 said:
also please be careful when using books that aren’t considered inspired. The Gospel of James was written in the second century and is not considered inspired by the Church. 🙂
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Don’t worry, I am well aware of what is inspired and what is not. We all get lots of insight from non-Biblical and extra-Biblical sources that are not inspired but they can provide helpful information to help us understand the Bible better. I would not make reference to such writings as the apocrypha and the Early Church Fathers if there was not a high degree of oral tradition found in them. It is not as if I would quote the Gnostic writings for evidence, I am very careful about what I use.
 
COPLAND_3 said:
Don’t worry, I am well aware of what is inspired and what is not. We all get lots of insight from non-Biblical and extra-Biblical sources that are not inspired but they can provide helpful information to help us understand the Bible better. I would not make reference to such writings as the apocrypha and the Early Church Fathers if there was not a high degree of oral tradition found in them. It is not as if I would quote the Gnostic writings for evidence, I am very careful about what I use.
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Ok but you cannot say that the Gospel of James can confirm that Mary was of the line of David if that is not in the Gospels. The link I previously posted explains how the genealogies work.
 
RCWarrior821 said:
Ok but you cannot say that the Gospel of James can confirm that Mary was of the line of David if that is not in the Gospels. The link I previously posted explains how the genealogies work.
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Other Apocrypal gospels also made that claim too, I am not just relying on the Proto-Gospel of James. I think that those gospels seem to be in harmony with Rom. 1:3.
 
Henning said:
Romans 1:3
“Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord,
which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh”

How can I understand this verse with respect to the facts that Joseph was only his step-father, and Jesus was born of Mary a virgin. How I’ve read it is that according to Jesus’ physical flesh, he was made of David’s physical seed (genes) which Joseph physically inherited and passed onto Jesus…🤷 thanks for any help.
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In marriage, they are no longer two but one flesh (Mt 19:6).

So, Mary’s flesh is as good as Joseph’s.
 
what the heck are you guys talking about?

God promised David that his seed will bear the messiah form the shoot of Jeesie! David was shocked to hear this! He knew what they meant because he sang songs to God and praised him for it. The line of David is traced to Jesus because that is what God promised. I understand about marriage and that but the seed of David is what makes decedents. Example I am married and have 2 sons and they marry and have sons and so on. My seed is passed down as you continue to grow. God also could have been talking about a spiritual seed because David was a man after Gods own heart!! Therefore Marry would of had to come from the house of either David or Solomon. another example is in Jewish tradition you had the 12 pillars of Israel: the house of Benjamin etc. If you were to belong in the house of Benjamin then you would have been born into the seed of Benjamin of some kind. This was to fulfill Gods promise to David that there will be a king that would sit on the throne forever from is own lineage.
 
Mary could have very well come from the line of David, but whether or not she did is not relevant. Jesus is of the line of David by virtue of his legal father, St. Joseph. Both Matthew and Luke attest to this.

And yes, Luke’s genealogy is that of Joseph, not Mary.
 
Henning said:
Romans 1:3
“Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord,
which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh”

How can I understand this verse with respect to the facts that Joseph was only his step-father, and Jesus was born of Mary a virgin. How I’ve read it is that according to Jesus’ physical flesh, he was made of David’s physical seed (genes) which Joseph physically inherited and passed onto Jesus…🤷 thanks for any help.
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Hi, Henning!

…I understand how confusing Scriptures can be… consider Jesus Incarnation… it was through the Will of the Holy Spirit that Mary conceived was it not?

How did this conception truly occurred? …I mean biologically… does anyone know?

We know from Scriptures that Yahweh God can give Abraham descendants from mere rocks/stones (Matt 3:1-9); what is the genetic composition of a rock? Can it contain the seed of Abraham?

During the last two decades or so medical science has been able to manipulate human generic makeup and has produced artificially engineered children… is the Creator more limited than science? Could the Holy Spirit not manipulate Joseph’s and Mary’s genes in order to give the Word a body of human flesh?

Regardless of the manner God chose to bring Jesus into the world, for all intended purpose Jesus was recognized as Joseph’s natural child–remember that the Gospels were not writen before Jesus’ birth but some time after His Death and Resurrection, hence, it was not common knowledge that the Holy Spirit was the cause of Mary’s pregnancy!

Maran atha!

Angel
 
You didn’t usually marry outside your clan and your tribe; if you did, the fact was worth mention.

So the fact that Mary was betrothed to Joseph is pretty fair evidence in itself that she was of the House of David.

The House of David also intermarried occasionally with women from the line of priests (cohanim) from very early on, which is probably how Elizabeth, Mary’s kinswoman, was married to a priest.
 
Xenos8 said:
Matthew’s genealogy is for Joseph, Luke’s is Mary’s. Here’s a link that explains it well: bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuseaction/Library.sr/CT/BQA/k/184
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The curse of Jehoiachin is not sufficient basis to read a Marian genealogy in Luke, as nothing in the text supports it as Mary’s ancestry. Both genealogies are that of Joseph, through whom Jesus gets his Davidic lineage. The logic of “Joseph’s line is cursed, so the genealogy of Luke MUST be that of Mary” is a non sequitur, and does violence to the text of Luke.

As for “disqualifying” Jesus, I don’t see how this is any important matter. For one thing, Jesus never sat on the throne of Judah. He himself said that his kingdom is not of this world, so the curse of Jehoiachin should be a moot point.

Besides that, the Lukan genealogy shows that St. Joseph also had another ancestry separate from the Solomonic line, which is indeed plausible due to Levirate and adoptive reckoning. So even if Joseph were “disqualified” in the Solomonic line, no obstacle lies in the Nathanaic line. But even without the Nathanaic line, I see no reason why the Jehoiachin curse should even matter.
 
First of all, the genealogies are different, so how could they both be Joseph? Second, the curse does matter. In order to be able to rule Israel, along with the rest of the world, which Jesus will do when He returns, how could He be from the cursed line?

Micah 5:2 “But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, [Though] you are little among the thousands of Judah, [Yet] out of you shall come forth to Me The One to be Ruler in Israel, Whose goings forth [are] from of old, From everlasting.”
 
Xenos8 said:
First of all, the genealogies are different, so how could they both be Joseph? Second, the curse does matter. In order to be able to rule Israel, along with the rest of the world, which Jesus will do when He returns, how could He be from the cursed line?
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The explanation is simple. St. Joseph had two fathers.

Even if we apply the curse to Jehoiachin, St. Joseph’s descent from Nathan should remedy that.
 
Another thing probably worth mentioning is that curses can be rescinded, and in Haggai, we see God blessing Jehoiachin’s grandson Zerubabbel, calling him a signet (Haggai 2:3).
 
Mintaka said:
You didn’t usually marry outside your clan and your tribe; if you did, the fact was worth mention.

So the fact that Mary was betrothed to Joseph is pretty fair evidence in itself that she was of the House of David.

The House of David also intermarried occasionally with women from the line of priests (cohanim) from very early on, which is probably how Elizabeth, Mary’s kinswoman, was married to a priest.
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Hi, Mintaka!

Excellent point!

…the very devout Jews were awaiting the Messiah and since the prophecy foretold of Him coming from the House of David there would be a minimum number of faithful that would venture to marry outside of their tribe…

Maran atha!

Angel
 
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