J
justasking4
Guest
Tim Kirchoff;3166352]You still don’t get it?!?![]()
If MAry had expected to have relations with Joseph, she would not have asked the question she asked. Period. End of story. Her question only makes sense if she had no intention of having relations with Joseph. She asked that question, however. There is only on explanation- that she never intended to have relations with Joseph.
Here is what the New American Bible (catholic Bible) says about this verse in Luke 1:34–[34] Mary’s questioning response is a denial of sexual relations and is used by Luke to lead to the angel’s declaration about the Spirit’s role in the conception of this child (Luke 1:35). According to Luke, the virginal conception of Jesus takes place through the holy Spirit, the power of God, and therefore Jesus has a unique relationship to Yahweh: he is Son of God.If you still don’t understand…![]()
Notice it says nothing about your assertion that “she never intended to have relations with Joseph.”
You are reading far more into this text that is warranted.
It would change because sexual relationships between husband and wives is a very good thing and something God blessed.And as for that last question. it should be the other way around. If Mary had not intended to have relations with Joseph before the Annunciation, why would that change after Jesus was born?