M
momstheword
Guest
Hi all,
I need help explaining the passages where Jesus seems to admonish His mother. I’ve already told her (my friend) that such a rebuke would have been a violation of the 4th commandment. She responded that an admonition by the Lord would not be disrespectful. Obviously, she begins with the premise that the Blessed Mother sinned, and therefore Jesus was speaking here as her Lord, not her Son. Here is the text of what she sent.
**"She refers to her need for a Savior (Luke 1:47), and she’s sometimes rebuked
by Jesus (Luke 2:48-50, John 2:3-4). To suggest that in Luke 1:47 Mary meant
that she was saved from ever sinning is an assumption that can’t be proven,
and that’s not how the term is used elsewhere in Scripture. God is
repeatedly referred to as a Savior because He saves sinners, not because He
prevents people from ever sinning. What Biblical precedent do we have for
the Catholic interpretation of Luke 1:47?
In response to John 2:3-4 - the same language Jesus uses in response to Mary
(“What do I have to do with you?”) is used by the demons when they’re trying
to distance themselves from Jesus (Mark 1:24, Luke 8:28, etc.). The phrase
Jesus uses is a negative one, and suggests that He’s rebuking or correcting
Mary. Admonishing in the Lord is not dishonoring - so Jesus was not sinning
to do so.
Not only do we see Jesus rebuking Mary in Scripture, but we also see Mary
distrusting Jesus and suggesting that He did something wrong (Luke 2:41-50).
She was anxious about Him, and she asks, “Son, why have you treated us this
way?” (verse 48). When Jesus explains that He had to be in His Father’s
house, Mary doesn’t understand (verse 50). Not only does this passage pose a
problem for the claim that Mary was sinless, but it also contradicts the
claim that Mary was aware of and cooperating with Jesus’ Messianic work all
along. Clearly, if Mary was anxious about Jesus, as though He couldn’t be
trusted alone at age 12, and if she accused Him of mistreating her and
didn’t understand what He meant by His simple response to her, it’s
implausible to claim that Mary was fully aware of Jesus’ identity and fully
cooperating with Him.**"
I need help explaining the passages where Jesus seems to admonish His mother. I’ve already told her (my friend) that such a rebuke would have been a violation of the 4th commandment. She responded that an admonition by the Lord would not be disrespectful. Obviously, she begins with the premise that the Blessed Mother sinned, and therefore Jesus was speaking here as her Lord, not her Son. Here is the text of what she sent.
**"She refers to her need for a Savior (Luke 1:47), and she’s sometimes rebuked
by Jesus (Luke 2:48-50, John 2:3-4). To suggest that in Luke 1:47 Mary meant
that she was saved from ever sinning is an assumption that can’t be proven,
and that’s not how the term is used elsewhere in Scripture. God is
repeatedly referred to as a Savior because He saves sinners, not because He
prevents people from ever sinning. What Biblical precedent do we have for
the Catholic interpretation of Luke 1:47?
In response to John 2:3-4 - the same language Jesus uses in response to Mary
(“What do I have to do with you?”) is used by the demons when they’re trying
to distance themselves from Jesus (Mark 1:24, Luke 8:28, etc.). The phrase
Jesus uses is a negative one, and suggests that He’s rebuking or correcting
Mary. Admonishing in the Lord is not dishonoring - so Jesus was not sinning
to do so.
Not only do we see Jesus rebuking Mary in Scripture, but we also see Mary
distrusting Jesus and suggesting that He did something wrong (Luke 2:41-50).
She was anxious about Him, and she asks, “Son, why have you treated us this
way?” (verse 48). When Jesus explains that He had to be in His Father’s
house, Mary doesn’t understand (verse 50). Not only does this passage pose a
problem for the claim that Mary was sinless, but it also contradicts the
claim that Mary was aware of and cooperating with Jesus’ Messianic work all
along. Clearly, if Mary was anxious about Jesus, as though He couldn’t be
trusted alone at age 12, and if she accused Him of mistreating her and
didn’t understand what He meant by His simple response to her, it’s
implausible to claim that Mary was fully aware of Jesus’ identity and fully
cooperating with Him.**"
