Jesus refering to Mary as "woman"

  • Thread starter Thread starter mark_a
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
M

mark_a

Guest
I have wondered about this because if I called my own mother “woman” while speaking to her, especially around friends and other guests, she would feel disrespected.

Is this a translation or cultural thing?
 
mark a:
I have wondered about this because if I called my own mother “woman” while speaking to her, especially around friends and other guests, she would feel disrespected.

Is this a translation or cultural thing?
Click to expand...
It’s a cultural thing. Jesus never disrespected his mother. If he had, he’d have broken the 5th Commandment to honor one’s father and mother.
 
40.png
Della:
It’s a cultural thing. Jesus never disrespected his mother. If he had, he’d have broken the 5th Commandment to honor one’s father and mother.
Click to expand...
Its actually the fourth commandment. Just thought I add that in, I know you know.😉

Monica
 
40.png
MonicaC:
Its actually the fourth commandment. Just thought I add that in, I know you know.😉
Click to expand...
That is correct. Although in the Protestant version it is the fifth.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=64564&highlight=commandments

Regarding the OP’s question, “woman” used to be a term of great respect. After all, where’s the disrespect in calling a woman by her greatest quality - that she is someone who can bear children and become a mother?

It was respectful probably until some secular feminist took offense to it. When will they realize that they’re only hurting themselves as a gender? Grr… :mad:
 
Yes, Jesus meant no disrespect by this. I think it was a combination between cultural and linguistical differences. For example in Spanish it is ok to say chica for girl and it sounds fine to use mujer for woman. It just depends on the language and culture.
 
The word Woman has a special significance throughout the bible. In Genesis 3.15 the devil is set at enmity with the Woman, who will bear Jesus. In Isaiah 7.14 The sign of a young woman giving birth to the messiah is foretold. In revelation 12, we see a Woman clothed with the Sun who gives birth to Jesus. Much of this is bound up in the use of the word Woman when referencing Mary.

Culturally too, the form of address was closer in meaning to the English word, Lady.
 
I am so excited, I may have a chance to actually add something to this conversation… Here goes…

The use of the term “Woman” both in John 2 (wedding at Cana) and John 19 (crucifixion) is actually a reference by Jesus to Mary being the New Eve…

Now, all Christians agree that Eve was created sinless and perfect and remained so until the fall of man… Now, she was only addressed as “Woman” while sinless and perfect, prior to the fall of man and named Eve after the fall of man (Gen 3:20); thus, Mary, as the New Eve is addressed as “Woman” by Jesus. This is, in essence, one of the proofs for the Immaculate Conception.

There is another link between Eve and Mary and that is the “title” change. Eve started as Woman and became Eve (Mother of all living) after the fall of man. Mary also started as Woman and became Mother after the redemption of man.

The typology of Mary is fantastic stuff.
 
40.png
catholicdude942:
Yes, Jesus meant no disrespect by this. I think it was a combination between cultural and linguistical differences. For example in Spanish it is ok to say chica for girl and it sounds fine to use mujer for woman. It just depends on the language and culture.
Click to expand...
Of course it is ok, thats the translation. We dont call our mothers “mujer” though.

I agree Jesus meant no disrespect. I just wanted to clarify that in Spanish calling your mother “mujer” would sound just like calling your mother “woman” in English. As the OP said she probably would not be very happy, especially if said in public.
 
40.png
maesoph:
I am so excited, I may have a chance to actually add something to this conversation… Here goes…

The use of the term “Woman” both in John 2 (wedding at Cana) and John 19 (crucifixion) is actually a reference by Jesus to Mary being the New Eve…

Now, all Christians agree that Eve was created sinless and perfect and remained so until the fall of man… Now, she was only addressed as “Woman” while sinless and perfect, prior to the fall of man and named Eve after the fall of man (Gen 3:20); thus, Mary, as the New Eve is addressed as “Woman” by Jesus. This is, in essence, one of the proofs for the Immaculate Conception.

There is another link between Eve and Mary and that is the “title” change. Eve started as Woman and became Eve (Mother of all living) after the fall of man. Mary also started as Woman and became Mother after the redemption of man.

The typology of Mary is fantastic stuff.
Click to expand...
Thank you for this wonderful post. It was very interesting.

Monica
 
40.png
maesoph:
I am so excited, I may have a chance to actually add something to this conversation… Here goes…

The use of the term “Woman” both in John 2 (wedding at Cana) and John 19 (crucifixion) is actually a reference by Jesus to Mary being the New Eve…

Now, all Christians agree that Eve was created sinless and perfect and remained so until the fall of man… Now, she was only addressed as “Woman” while sinless and perfect, prior to the fall of man and named Eve after the fall of man (Gen 3:20); thus, Mary, as the New Eve is addressed as “Woman” by Jesus. This is, in essence, one of the proofs for the Immaculate Conception.

There is another link between Eve and Mary and that is the “title” change. Eve started as Woman and became Eve (Mother of all living) after the fall of man. Mary also started as Woman and became Mother after the redemption of man.

The typology of Mary is fantastic stuff.
Click to expand...
I second Monica, thank you for this. Encourages me to look into it more.
 
mark a:
I have wondered about this because if I called my own mother “woman” while speaking to her, especially around friends and other guests, she would feel disrespected.

Is this a translation or cultural thing?
Click to expand...
Actually it was a sign of respect of her position as Mother of the Redemer, read the messianic prophecy of Genesis 3:15.
 
The word said was Mother, but the thought is not conveyed in a direct translation. A thought for thought translation would say something like, “Dear Woman”. It was thoughtful, poetic, and (as previously mentioned) symbolic.
 
40.png
maesoph:
I am so excited, I may have a chance to actually add something to this conversation… Here goes…

The use of the term “Woman” both in John 2 (wedding at Cana) and John 19 (crucifixion) is actually a reference by Jesus to Mary being the New Eve…

Now, all Christians agree that Eve was created sinless and perfect and remained so until the fall of man… Now, she was only addressed as “Woman” while sinless and perfect, prior to the fall of man and named Eve after the fall of man (Gen 3:20); thus, Mary, as the New Eve is addressed as “Woman” by Jesus. This is, in essence, one of the proofs for the Immaculate Conception.

There is another link between Eve and Mary and that is the “title” change. Eve started as Woman and became Eve (Mother of all living) after the fall of man. Mary also started as Woman and became Mother after the redemption of man.

The typology of Mary is fantastic stuff.
Click to expand...
Great summary! The most concise and best I’ve read on this topic, actually! Thank you! Keep contributing!!!
 
40.png
maesoph:
I am so excited, I may have a chance to actually add something to this conversation… Here goes…

The use of the term “Woman” both in John 2 (wedding at Cana) and John 19 (crucifixion) is actually a reference by Jesus to Mary being the New Eve…
Now, all Christians agree that Eve was created sinless and perfect and remained so until the fall of man… Now, she was only addressed as “Woman” while sinless and perfect, prior to the fall of man and named Eve after the fall of man (Gen 3:20); thus, Mary, as the New Eve is addressed as “Woman” by Jesus. This is, in essence, one of the proofs for the Immaculate Conception.
There is another link between Eve and Mary and that is the “title” change. Eve started as Woman and became Eve (Mother of all living) after the fall of man. Mary also started as Woman and became Mother after the redemption of man.
The typology of Mary is fantastic stuff.
Click to expand...
Well put and you are correct and it is exciting indeed. Mary is the new Eve and Jesus is the new Adam.

Mary is also the “arc of the covenant”, that carred the “holy of holies” in Exodus.
 
The meaning was very close to our use of “ma’am”, so it was being very polite indeed…
{After all, my understanding is that “ma’am” is an alternative to “Your royal majesty” when addressing the English queen.)
It’s one of those usages which have changed over time, & of course culture.
 
At the wedding feast at Cana is Where Jesus dignifies Mary with the title “woman”, although it is expressed in a hebrew idium suggesting that Jesus the one speaking, recognizing and revealing who Mary is as woman, the new eve and bone of his bone and flesh of his flesh. At the crucifixion he gives her the title again of “woman”, this time he gives her to John his disciple, who takes into his home, as do Catholics who are the rest of her offspring, Revelation12;17 Then the dragon became angry with the woman and went to wage war against the rest of her offspring, those who keep God’s commandments and bear witness to Jesus.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top