Jesus the Embryo (Another Ensoulment Question)

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I searched through some of the threads, but didn’t find much specifically related to my question. Thought this might be the best forum.

If Christ is true God and true man, and like us in all things but sin (as the Bible says), how, if at all, does that affect our understanding of human ensoulment at the embryonic stage?

I ask because I’ve spoken with non-Catholic Christians about this and I’m trying to find some common ground they’ll be more likely to think about, namely Jesus, since they don’t accept Church authority.

Would it be correct to say, that embryos should be safeguarded too since Jesus Himself was one? That Jesus had a soul, therefore we do too?
 
It is certainly a key portion of the doctrine of the Incarnation (and not one that was made clear to me as a Protestant, where misleading “God in a human suit” descriptions were more often used) that Jesus had a human soul created just for Him as well as a human body.

While it makes the most sense that His human soul and body were created together at the moment of His conception, a Christian who believes in “late ensoulment” for humans in general would presumably say the same thing about the creation of Jesus’ soul.

The two important things are that Jesus’ human soul was, in fact, newly created (it didn’t preexist along with Him as God the Son) and that it was, immediately upon its creation, united inseparably to the Son – there was no length of time in which Jesus the human was independent of the Second Person of the Trinity.

When His soul was created in relation to the development of His human body, though, is not so certain a question. Conception makes the most sense to me, but I presume St. Thomas would have said it happened at 40 days’ gestation just as with any other male child in his understanding of things.

Not sure if that helps; I fear it does the opposite.

Usagi
 
It is certainly a key portion of the doctrine of the Incarnation (and not one that was made clear to me as a Protestant, where misleading “God in a human suit” descriptions were more often used) that Jesus had a human soul created just for Him as well as a human body.

While it makes the most sense that His human soul and body were created together at the moment of His conception, a Christian who believes in “late ensoulment” for humans in general would presumably say the same thing about the creation of Jesus’ soul.

The two important things are that Jesus’ human soul was, in fact, newly created (it didn’t preexist along with Him as God the Son) and that it was, immediately upon its creation, united inseparably to the Son – there was no length of time in which Jesus the human was independent of the Second Person of the Trinity.

When His soul was created in relation to the development of His human body, though, is not so certain a question. Conception makes the most sense to me, but I presume St. Thomas would have said it happened at 40 days’ gestation just as with any other male child in his understanding of things.

Not sure if that helps; I fear it does the opposite.

Usagi
Christ was an exception. He received a fully human soul at conception. Therefore his body was held to be perfectly formed at that moment also. It simlpy needed to grow larger. Of course that is no longer held, even though it came from Aquinas.
 
I searched through some of the threads, but didn’t find much specifically related to my question. Thought this might be the best forum.

If Christ is true God and true man, and like us in all things but sin (as the Bible says), how, if at all, does that affect our understanding of human ensoulment at the embryonic stage?

I ask because I’ve spoken with non-Catholic Christians about this and I’m trying to find some common ground they’ll be more likely to think about, namely Jesus, since they don’t accept Church authority.

Would it be correct to say, that embryos should be safeguarded too since Jesus Himself was one? That Jesus had a soul, therefore we do too?
Sorry this wont fly, you have your theology and philosophy back to front.
If Jesus has a soul it is because he is human like us.
You are saying the reverse.
 
Sorry this wont fly, you have your theology and philosophy back to front.
If Jesus has a soul it is because he is human like us.
You are saying the reverse.
What am I saying? That we have a soul because we are like Jesus?
 
I’m more confused. Don’t we take away from his humanity if we say he’s the biological exception? Though, we do profess the miracle of the Annunciation… which is an exception. Something still isn’t clear to me.
 
While it makes the most sense that His human soul and body were created together at the moment of His conception, a Christian who believes in “late ensoulment” for humans in general would presumably say the same thing about the creation of Jesus’ soul.

Usagi
Thanks! This helps me a lot! A question building off that then: what are the implications of this? It still shouldn’t make a difference in the abortion debate, right? Or if so, from a non-Catholic Christian perspective, how?
 
The union of the divine and human natures in the one Divine Person is known as the Hypostatic Union.

The nitty-gritty of the Hypostatic Union is in these paragraphs in the universal Catechism of the Catholic Church, Second Edition.

Why Did the Word Become Flesh?
CCC, 456-460

The Incarnation
CCC, 461-463

True God and True Man
CCC, 464-469

How Is the Son of God Man?
CCC, 470

Christ’s Soul and His Human Knowledge
CCC, 471-474

Christ’s Human Will
CCC, 475

Christ’s True Body
CCC, 476-477

The Heart of the Incarnate Word
CCC, 478

In Brief
CCC, 479-483

Conceived by the Power of the Holy Spirit …
CCC, 484-486

… Born of the Virgin Mary
CCC, 487

Links to the Catechism

scborromeo.org/ccc.htm

usccb.org/beliefs-and-teachings/what-we-believe/catechism/catechism-of-the-catholic-church/
 
Would it be correct to say, that embryos should be safeguarded too since Jesus Himself was one? That Jesus had a soul, therefore we do too?
I agree with a previous commentator; I think this is backwards. Embryos should be safeguarded because they have intrinsic value as human beings, therefore Jesus, as an embryo, should have been safeguarded as well. We have a soul at that moment, therefore Jesus did, too.
 
I agree with a previous commentator; I think this is backwards. Embryos should be safeguarded because they have intrinsic value as human beings, therefore Jesus, as an embryo, should have been safeguarded as well. We have a soul at that moment, therefore Jesus did, too.
I suppose I don’t see it as backwards, if someone is trying to convince a fellow Christian who accepts Christ’s dignified status, but not every humans. I see it, in this instance, as analogy. More as symbiotic, than opposed. The fact that Christ became man dignifies our nature, too. This is my working understanding. But, I need to go read the CCC quotes that were so graciously provided. Is it wrong to think this way?

PS: Thanks for your contribution! I need different perspectives on this: I’m pretty helpless without context.
 
I suppose I don’t see it as backwards, if someone is trying to convince a fellow Christian who accepts Christ’s dignified status, but not every humans. I see it, in this instance, as analogy. More as symbiotic, than opposed. The fact that Christ became man dignifies our nature, too. This is my working understanding. But, I need to go read the CCC quotes that were so graciously provided. Is it wrong to think this way?

PS: Thanks for your contribution! I need different perspectives on this: I’m pretty helpless without context.
TCEL your original argument was based on the existence of a soul.

How do we know that humans have immortal souls (as opposed to animals that do not)?
Well we know this from philosophy (ie reason) because “soul” is primarily derived from philosophy in the Church’s understanding of that reality (eg the CCC) based on Aquinas, based on Aristotle.

So Jesus really has nothing to do with demonstrating that human’s have souls.
In fact, the only reason why we posit Jesus having a soul is because Church Doctrine says he was truly man. If he was truly man then he must have a human soul.

Now your argument below, as I understand it, is trying to demonstrate the reverse.
You seem to be saying that we can demonstrate that human’s from the moment of conception must have human souls … because Jesus had one from the moment of conception and we are all human like him. It doesn’t make a lot of sense because the argument just goes round in circles and you’ve cut away the true basis of how we know the human soul exists. It is by way of reason applied to creation not by way of Revelation.

If you want to justify the embryo’s right to life just argue it from Christian Tradition.
The Church has always regarded infanticide and intentional malice to the child in the womb with absolute abhorrence.

If you are trying to argue things from ensoulment (a human philosophy) then that militates against you alleged intent below to use the Bible instead as common ground.

And if you do go down the ensoulment path you are in trouble because the “inventor” said a fully human soul doesn’t come until after 40 days.

Personally, from a philosophy point of view, I believe the best argument is that it doesn’t matter whether the conceptus is a human person or not (and everybody disagrees over what a human person is). What matter is that we all know that if passive nature is left to run its course without interference the conceptus will grow and be born a human being and therefore should be treated as one right from the start even if we don’t know whether it acts plant or animal at its various stages!

Which is pretty much the Magisterium’s view.
 
TCEL your original argument was based on the existence of a soul.

How do we know that humans have immortal souls (as opposed to animals that do not)?
Well we know this from philosophy (ie reason) because “soul” is primarily derived from philosophy in the Church’s understanding of that reality (eg the CCC) based on Aquinas, based on Aristotle.

So Jesus really has nothing to do with demonstrating that human’s have souls.
In fact, the only reason why we posit Jesus having a soul is because Church Doctrine says he was truly man. If he was truly man then he must have a human soul.

Now your argument below, as I understand it, is trying to demonstrate the reverse.
You seem to be saying that we can demonstrate that human’s from the moment of conception must have human souls … because Jesus had one from the moment of conception and we are all human like him. It doesn’t make a lot of sense because the argument just goes round in circles and you’ve cut away the true basis of how we know the human soul exists. It is by way of reason applied to creation not by way of Revelation.

If you want to justify the embryo’s right to life just argue it from Christian Tradition.
The Church has always regarded infanticide and intentional malice to the child in the womb with absolute abhorrence.

If you are trying to argue things from ensoulment (a human philosophy) then that militates against you alleged intent below to use the Bible instead as common ground.

And if you do go down the ensoulment path you are in trouble because the “inventor” said a fully human soul doesn’t come until after 40 days.

Personally, from a philosophy point of view, I believe the best argument is that it doesn’t matter whether the conceptus is a human person or not (and everybody disagrees over what a human person is). What matter is that we all know that if passive nature is left to run its course without interference the conceptus will grow and be born a human being and therefore should be treated as one right from the start even if we don’t know whether it acts plant or animal at its various stages!

Which is pretty much the Magisterium’s view.
Thanks. You’ve given me a lot to think about. 🙂
 
So Jesus really has nothing to do with demonstrating that human’s have souls.
In fact, the only reason why we posit Jesus having a soul is because Church Doctrine says he was truly man. If he was truly man then he must have a human soul.

Now your argument below, as I understand it, is trying to demonstrate the reverse.
You seem to be saying that we can demonstrate that human’s from the moment of conception must have human souls … because Jesus had one from the moment of conception and we are all human like him. It doesn’t make a lot of sense because the argument just goes round in circles and you’ve cut away the true basis of how we know the human soul exists. It is by way of reason applied to creation not by way of Revelation.
I promise I’m not trying to be purposefully dense.

So, my fellow Christian friend who holds to Sola Scriptura is making a man-made distinction when s/he brings up the question of ensoulment?

In other words I could ask, “Where is ensoulment found in the Bible?”

Additionally, I was hoping that by appealing to the example of Jesus my friends could then understand, by analogy, that to affirm His human soul from conception, but to deny our own, is a contradiction? (My working assumption is that none of them would say it would have been ok to abort Him!!! I shudder at even thinking of that.) So that is not correct?
 
Im not sure Christ received a soul at conception. Christ has always existed in Heaven even before He became incarnate. He always had a soul. Of course, He is the exception.
 
Im not sure Christ received a soul at conception. Christ has always existed in Heaven even before He became incarnate. He always had a soul. Of course, He is the exception.
This is part of the deeper sub-text of my question I’m trying to figure out. I’m wondering this too. So, thanks!

I’ve been reading through the CCC quotes provided, and they’re a bit above my head. Here’s what keeps sticking out to me: He’s an exception in that He’s Divine, but He is true man, too. These quotes come to my attention:
464 The unique and altogether singular event of the Incarnation of the Son of God does not mean that Jesus Christ is part God and part man, nor does it imply that he is the result of a confused mixture of the divine and the human. He became truly man while remaining truly God. Jesus Christ is true God and true man. During the first centuries, the Church had to defend and clarify this truth of faith against the heresies that falsified it.
466 The Nestorian heresy regarded Christ as a human person joined to the divine person of God’s Son. Opposing this heresy, St. Cyril of Alexandria and the third ecumenical council at Ephesus in 431 confessed “that the Word, uniting to himself in his person the flesh animated by a rational soul, became man.”89 Christ’s humanity has no other subject than the divine person of the Son of God, who assumed it and made it his own, from his conception. For this reason the Council of Ephesus proclaimed in 431 that Mary truly became the Mother of God by the human conception of the Son of God in her womb: “Mother of God, not that the nature of the Word or his divinity received the beginning of its existence from the holy Virgin, but that, since the holy body, animated by a rational soul, which the Word of God united to himself according to the hypostasis, was born from her, the Word is said to be born according to the flesh.”90 (495)
470 Because “human nature was assumed, not absorbed,”97 in the mysterious union of the Incarnation, the Church was led over the course of centuries to confess the full reality of Christ’s human soul, with its operations of intellect and will, and of his human body. **In parallel fashion, she had to recall on each occasion that Christ’s human nature belongs, as his own, to the divine person of the Son of God, who assumed it.**Everything that Christ is and does in this nature derives from “one of the Trinity.” The Son of God therefore communicates to his humanity his own personal mode of existence in the Trinity. In his soul as in his body, Christ thus expresses humanly the divine ways of the Trinity:98 (516, 626, 2599)
So, it seems we can’t affirm one at the expense of the other?
 
I searched through some of the threads, but didn’t find much specifically related to my question. Thought this might be the best forum.

If Christ is true God and true man, and like us in all things but sin (as the Bible says), how, if at all, does that affect our understanding of human ensoulment at the embryonic stage?

I ask because I’ve spoken with non-Catholic Christians about this and I’m trying to find some common ground they’ll be more likely to think about, namely Jesus, since they don’t accept Church authority.

Would it be correct to say, that embryos should be safeguarded too since Jesus Himself was one? That Jesus had a soul, therefore we do too?
Why do you day “if” ? Christ IS
 
Why do you day “if” ? Christ IS
When I said, “If Christ is true God and true man,” I was just trying to establish an if/then argument. In other words, if a fellow Christian accepts “that”, then shouldn’t they accept “this”? I was unclear on piecing it together, as this is an area I’m trying to learn more about.
 
This is part of the deeper sub-text of my question I’m trying to figure out. I’m wondering this too. So, thanks!

I’ve been reading through the CCC quotes provided, and they’re a bit above my head. Here’s what keeps sticking out to me: He’s an exception in that He’s Divine, but He is true man, too. These quotes come to my attention:

So, it seems we can’t affirm one at the expense of the other?
I dont see anything there that is problematic. Christ was fully human as well as fully divine, of cpurse, but He was sinless. Humans are sinful creatures. How is this so? He is the exception once again, of course. IMO same concept in regards to His soul.

and think about the process in which Jesus was conceived. The Lord put the Holy Spirit (Jesus) into Mary. He didnt inseminate her and fertilize an egg and then a soul created. The Spirit entered into her womb directly.
 
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