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Charlie_Zeaiter
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Why do you suppose Jesus is referred to as the only son? I mean, why isn’t the holy spirit referred to as the other son?
Good questionWhy do you suppose Jesus is referred to as the only son? I mean, why isn’t the holy spirit referred to as the other son?
Jesus Christ is the only- Begotten Son of God.
We as Christians are all begotten of God through the One begotten son Jesus Christ. Yet we were not born by the power of the Holy Spirit conceiving with Mary, only Jesus was. Therefore the Second Person of the most Holy Trinity, Jesus Christ became incarnate and took on another nature, that of man. He is fully God and fully man, 100% of each. The Mystery of the incarnation.
I don’t think this answers the question. The Son did not become “the Son” because of the Incarnation. He is eternally the Son of the Father.The Holy Spirit as the Third Person of the most Holy Trinity never was incarnated. we know this because Christ sent His Holy Spirit later on to guide the Church into all truth.
This makes more sense. However, why is it that we say the Son is “begotten”, while the Holy Spirit “proceeded”? Aren’t they just words stating their relationships by our limited means? I don’t think there is official doctrine as to how the Son came from the Father or how the Holy Spirit came from the Father and the Son, the words “begotten” and “proceeded” are just philosophical terms. But I could be wrong.Because Jesus is the only one actually begotten by the Father. The spirit simply proceeds from both Father and Son - different to being begotten by Him (or Them).
It was God who originated the titles “Father” and “Son”, not the Church. (eg. Father - Mt. 6:9 and 7:21; Son - Mt. 3:17 and 17:5)Since God from all eternity has no gender, why is there “Father” and “Son”? Why doesnt the Church officially call the pre-Incarnate Jesus the “Beloved” as opposed to “Son”? Is it possible to say that from all eternity Jesus wasnt known as “Son”, but just as God? and that the titles, “Son” and “Father” were only adopted after the Incarnation?
Can someone explain in simple terms how one can be eternally begotten? Because I understand there is no start or finish to the Son being begotten. Do you know what I mean? I mean we don’t say that the Son was begotten do we? But on the other hand, there is no more generating to be done, so to speak, by the Father. Jesus is eternally generated by the Father, but that generation is complete at the same time so to speak. Can someone explain this? It has to be more than the Almighty existing outside of time, or IOW existing in eternity. I say this because how do we explain that the Son now for eternity exists as the Incarnate Jesus: There has to be a period were the Son was pure Spirit, but somehow in eternity, transformed so that He is now existing in both human and divine forms? How do we reconcile that God is unchangeable, yet the Son exists now in human form? So, when we hopefully reach Heaven we will see Jesus in bodily form won’t we? Or is He in bodily form only so that we can “see” Him so to speak?
These are just my thoughts, I could be wrong in some of my assumptions.
Wow; not the kind of questions that can be answered in a five easy sentences! But very interesting.Sorry for all these questions! But I think they are sort of related to the OP.![]()
Here is a quote from the Council of Trent Catechism, which I think is pretty understandable (underlining mine):Can someone explain in simple terms how one can be eternally begotten? Because I understand there is no start or finish to the Son being begotten. Do you know what I mean? I mean we don’t say that the Son was begotten do we? But on the other hand, there is no more generating to be done, so to speak, by the Father. Jesus is eternally generated by the Father, but that generation is complete at the same time so to speak. Can someone explain this? It has to be more than the Almighty existing outside of time, or IOW existing in eternity.
First, from all eternity God knew He would take on a human nature; so that reality was present in the mind of God eternally.I say this because how do we explain that the Son now for eternity exists as the Incarnate Jesus: There has to be a period were the Son was pure Spirit, but somehow in eternity, transformed so that He is now existing in both human and divine forms? How do we reconcile that God is unchangeable, yet the Son exists now in human form? So, when we hopefully reach Heaven we will see Jesus in bodily form won’t we? Or is He in bodily form only so that we can “see” Him so to speak?
If we are to put stock and believe in the revelations of John the Apostle through his gospel then his revelation about the Christ being the eternal begotten Word of the Father makes the best case and example of how the Word is eternally begotten by the Father. Word is more than spoken or written. Word begins by thought. Thought is the result of a rational intellect. While human thought is result of a developing intellect, in God’s case He is eternal for and from beyond all time and therefore is His thought too eternal, begotten for and from beyond all time. His thought begotten from His intellect and simultaneous with His being which while begotten is eternal as the Father is eternal. To suggest that the Word had a beginning is to say that the Father had a beginning as well. It would also be to say that the Father did indeed grow and mature into a rational thinking being which is not the case but rather He is timeless and forever as is His Word.Why do you suppose Jesus is referred to as the only son? I mean, why isn’t the holy spirit referred to as the other son?