Jesus wholly present under each species?

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YosefYosep

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I am having trouble with this. Is Jesus fully present under the bread and wine? At the last supper didn’t he specifically call the bread his body and the wine his blood? He didn’t call the wine his body and blood and likewise with the bread. I trust that the Church’s teaching on Jesus being present under both species is correct, it’s just that I am having a hard time figuring out how She formed this teaching.
 
YosefYosep said:
I am having trouble with this. Is Jesus fully present under the bread and wine? At the last supper didn’t he specifically call the bread his body and the wine his blood? He didn’t call the wine his body and blood and likewise with the bread. I trust that the Church’s teaching on Jesus being present under both species is correct, it’s just that I am having a hard time figuring out how She formed this teaching.
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One reason is that Jesus, being truly God, cannot be divided or separated into pieces, so no matter how much you divide up the physical bread and/or wine (break the bread, split the wine into cups), each piece must fully contain Jesus. The multiplication of the loaves proofs Jesus is fully capable of such miraculous multiplication.

Another is that Jesus is living, but flesh cannot live without blood, and blood cannot live outside of flesh.
 
I’m not a theologian, but I believe it may have something to do with the fact that we human are made up of body and soul.

Physical blood is part of the body, and not part of the soul.

Physical blood only comes from a body. And a physical body without blood is a decaying dried out, rotting corpus.

Finally, if I’m not mistaken, Eucharistic miracles often are of the consecrated Hosts turning into flesh that bleeds or can bleed.
 
Theologically speaking, I think it is correct to say that at the consecration, the bread becomes his body, the wine becomes his blood. Just as he said. But Jesus is a living person, whole and entire. So, where his body is, so there is his blood as well, and where his blood is, there is his body as well. This is known as concomitance.
 
YosefYosep said:
I am having trouble with this. Is Jesus fully present under the bread and wine? At the last supper didn’t he specifically call the bread his body and the wine his blood? He didn’t call the wine his body and blood and likewise with the bread. I trust that the Church’s teaching on Jesus being present under both species is correct, it’s just that I am having a hard time figuring out how She formed this teaching.
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Because of concomitance. Simply put, where Jesus’ Body is, there must his Blood be too, otherwise, if the Body and Blood were separated, he would be dead. And we know that’s not the case.
 
Yes he is.
So anyone who eats this bread or drinks this cup of the Lord unworthily is guilty of sinning against the body and blood of the Lord 1Cor 11 27.

Not much noticed, but holding a theological principle and truth of faith.
 
probleman said:
One reason is that Jesus, being truly God, cannot be divided or separated into pieces, so no matter how much you divide up the physical bread and/or wine (break the bread, split the wine into cups), each piece must fully contain Jesus. The multiplication of the loaves proofs Jesus is fully capable of such miraculous multiplication.

Another is that Jesus is living, but flesh cannot live without blood, and blood cannot live outside of flesh.
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👍
 
Yago said:
Yes he is.
So anyone who eats this bread or drinks this cup of the Lord unworthily is guilty of sinning against the body and blood of the Lord 1Cor 11 27.

Not much noticed, but holding a theological principle and truth of faith.
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How many times have I read that passage (well over a hundred), and still I’ve never noticed that?

:doh2:
 
yago said:
yes he is.
So anyone who eats this bread or drinks this cup of the lord unworthily is guilty of sinning against the body and blood of the lord 1cor 11 27.

Not much noticed, but holding a theological principle and truth of faith.
Click to expand...
good one!!!
 
YosefYosep said:
I am having trouble with this. Is Jesus fully present under the bread and wine? At the last supper didn’t he specifically call the bread his body and the wine his blood? He didn’t call the wine his body and blood and likewise with the bread. I trust that the Church’s teaching on Jesus being present under both species is correct, it’s just that I am having a hard time figuring out how She formed this teaching.
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Receiving the Body and the Blood Under One Species

1 Co 11:23-29
For I received from the Lord what I also passed on to you: The Lord Jesus, on the night he was betrayed, took bread, and when he had given thanks, he broke it and said, “This is my body, which is for you; do this in remembrance of me.” In the same way, after supper he took the cup, saying, “This cup is the new covenant of my blood; do this, whenever you drink of it, in remembrance of me.” For whenever you eat this bread and drink this cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until he comes. Therefore, whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of sinning against the body and blood of the Lord. A man ought to examine himself before he eats of the bread and drinks of the cup. For anyone who eats and drinks without recognizing the body of the Lord eats and drinks judgment on himself.”

Paul says that anyone who eats OR drinks in an unworthy manner sins against both the body AND the blood. IOW, if you eat the bread unworthily, you sin against the body and blood

OR

if you drink the cup unworthily, you sin against the body and the blood.
 
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