B
Fair enough!
1. Jesus Did Not Fulfill the Messianic Prophecies
What is the Messiah supposed to accomplish? The Bible says that he will:
*]Build the Third Temple (Ezekiel 37:26-28).
*]Gather all Jews back to the Land of Israel (Isaiah 43:5-6).
*]Usher in an era of world peace, and end all hatred, oppression, suffering and disease. As it says: “Nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall man learn war anymore.” (Isaiah 2:4)
*]Spread universal knowledge of the God of Israel, which will unite humanity as one. As it says: “God will be King over all the world ― on that day, God will be One and His Name will be One” (Zechariah 14:9).
A) Hogwash manmade rule with no backing whatsoever, other than a post-Christian Era change made by jews AFTER Christianity had already launched. Christ gave true prophecies, so either He was a prophet, or the best guesser of future events of all time.) Jesus Did Not Embody the Personal Qualifications of Messiah
A. Messiah as Prophet
**B. Descendent of David **
C. Torah Observance
First, I reject the idea that biblical verses can only be understood by looking at the hebrew… since NOT all biblical verses were written in hebrew to begin with (rather, greek for much if not all of the new testament, and for 7 books of the old testament).3) Mistranslated Verses “Referring” to Jesus
Biblical verses can only be understood by studying the original Hebrew text ― which reveals many discrepancies in the Christian translation.
**A. Virgin Birth **
**B. Suffering Servant **
Utter hogwash. The entire book of Isaiah is based on personal revelation. The prophecies of the psalms? Personal revelation. The Judges? People whom God spoke specifically to.4) Jewish Belief is Based Solely on National Revelation
But the accusation to this would be, you’re retroactively proving the NT–IOW, accepting it first as divine revelation, and then using the OT to prove it’s divine revelation – instead of the other way around: using the OT to prove that the NT is true.Fair enough!
A: I see the third temple in the Tabernacle of Every Catholic church in the world.(FULFILLED)
B. Looking at a map and I see a very Jewish Israel reformed… (FULFILLED)
C. Isaiah 2:4 refers to the “last days”… in other words the time of the new covenant. The second coming of Christ promises this fulfillment of prophecy. (TO BE FULFILLED)
D. I see a UNIVERSAL (read “Catholic”) church in the world right now… (so basically, FULFILLED)
But why would 1st century Jews ‘change’ the rule to paternal descent only, if Christianity didn’t become successful until the 4th century?A) Hogwash manmade rule with no backing whatsoever, other than a post-Christian Era change made by jews AFTER Christianity had already launched. Christ gave true prophecies, so either He was a prophet, or the best guesser of future events of all time.
I do know that tribal/clan descent is patrilineal, but if we assume Davidic descent could have been through Mary, and if we agree that Davidic descent was very important–why are there two differing accounts of her genealogy in the Gospels?B) Jesus is not a demi-God, He WAS fully human. On the part about David, nowhere in scripture does it say that Jesus must be a PATERNAL descendent of David… only a descendent… which is why the Bible includes geneologies to demonstrate this heritage.
But your explanation’s contradictory. Christ observed the law…but he didn’t follow it?C) Christ both observed and perfected the Torah. The reason Christ didn’t FOLLOW the Torah? Because He IS the Torah, the very emboddiment of the law. I happen to think that Christ understood the law just a weeeeee bit better than the pharisees.
That’s not what the text says.God spoke to ALL of Israel? Nope… Moses went into the mountains and spoke to God, and thus was established the seat of Moses and Moses’ special teaching authority.
Interesting point, but this wouldn’t be a national revelation. For one, it’s not visible to the nation, since many Jews were in the diaspora at the time. And furthermore, visibility’s not the only issue, but also clarity. The miracle could easily be attributed to natural phenomena.Further, if we want to show that ALL of Israel that was gathered could see the formation of the new covenant (just as with the old) we can discuss the earthquake and the tearing of the veil at the crucifixion… CERTAINLY visible signs to all of what had just happened.
**And this claim only makes sense if Jesus were claiming to be a mere prophet… but He is not. Jesus’ claim is that He is not a JUST a prophet of God, but actually God Himself in the flesh.