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irishcolleen45
Guest
In John Chapter 8, the Jews said to Jesus that they were never enslaved to anyone. What about their ancestors’ time in Egypt and Babylon? Why did they answer Jesus that way?
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I think so too…John’s use, throughout his Gospel of “Jews” did not mean everyone of Jewish lineage. He was referring to the religious hierarchy (Pharisees and Scribes), and their followers who sought to discredit, condemn, and kill Christ.Presumably the “we” were the individuals there and not the whole of Israel ever
D-R Bible, Haydock Commentary:In John Chapter 8, the Jews said to Jesus that they were never enslaved to anyone. What about their ancestors’ time in Egypt and Babylon? Why did they answer Jesus that way?
Agreed…justifying scripture for the things you mention is what I meant.Scripture did not lead to persecution; it was used ex post facto to justify continuing persecution.
Retribution, hate, and sin caused persecution.