stillsmallvoice:
Hi Subrosa!
Our view of the whole process bt which the Tanakh
was canonized is much more fluid than this Protestant view of a single session of the Sanhedrin at Yavneh saying, “Hey, here it is! We’re done!” See The Jewish Encyclopedia articles entitled “Bible Canon” (
tinyurl.com/4q8o9) and “Apocrypha” (
tinyurl.com/4vo93).
Our Sages excluded the so-called Apocryphal books from the Tanakh (what we call what you call the “Old Testament”) for several reasons. Ferinstance, I Maccabees, while considered to be very historically accurate & written by a believing Jew, was not considered to be Divinely inspired. The Prayer of Manasseh, while quite moving & a spiritual gem, was considered to be inauthentic (i.e., not by King Manasseh) as well as uninspired. Other books were considered to contain/be full of/ nonsense (i.e. ideas that didn’t jibe with the Torah), as well as to be inauthentic and/or uninspired.
About Chanukah, see
jewfaq.org/holiday7.htm (one article, basic) &
ou.org/chagim/chanukah/default.htm (links to several articles, more detailed).
Howzat?
Be well!
ssv
Hi ssv! -
Yet another question pops into my ever-seeking mind!
It is my understanding of history that the Greek version of the Hebrew scripture, the Septuagint (which is used in Traditional Christianity), actually came from Palestine (Judah).
Let me elaborate, and please correct me if you disagree -
After Cyrus had let the Hebrews go from Babylonian exile, many found thier way to Alexandria. At the time of Jesus, there lived substantially more Jews in Egypt than in Palestine (Judah) and they spoke Greek. Ptolemy, king of Egypt, wanted a collection of the Hebrew scripture placed in the great library of Alexandria. So, he collected 70+ Jewish clerics, sages, academians, etc., to complete this project. (BTW, this is where the Septuagint gets it’s name…Sept=70) These people needed a complete set of the scripture and they obtained it from Palestine (Judah). What they got was written in Hebrew. They then translated it into Greek, which was the dominant language, a legacy of Alexander the Great.
I forgot my question…oh, yeah! It actually has become a few questions.
The Septuagint, as you know, contains “apocrypha”, and yet these books were supplied by, assumably, priests in the Temple along with other clerics. How were the “apocrypha” viewed at that time? Inspired or not?
If, at that time, they were viewed as inspired, how did this change over time?
If they were not viewed as inspired, why did the Palestinian (Judaean) clerics supply them? Were they kept simply as part of the historical record?
Is there a reason that I have not thought of?
G-d bless you and your family, ssv,
Subrosa