Jews with multiple wives

[mark_a]

I know there are other Abrahamic religions that allow polygamy provided no civil laws are broken.

Are there any Jewish traditions that allow/promote multiple wives?

 

[Valke2]

I know there are other Abrahamic religions that allow polygamy provided no civil laws are broken.

Are there any Jewish traditions that allow/promote multiple wives?

Some Jews from Yemen have more than one wife. Israel does not allow multiple wives but recognizes them if they are pre-existing from another country such as Yemen.

 

[inJESUS]

When did the Jews reject polygamy and based on what?

 

[Alexius]

I’m pretty sure there are Catholic men in sub-Saharan Africa with multiple wives…What does the Catholic Church say?

Prayers and petitions,
Alexius

 

[Valke2]

When did the Jews reject polygamy and based on what?

There was a rabbinic ban on polygamy in the 1000s C.E. Most Jews followed the ban although some sephardic Jews did not. But even among Jews that did not acknowledge the ban, polygamy was never very popular.

faqs.org/faqs/judaism/FAQ/04-Observance/section-55.html :
About the year 1000, Rabbi Gershom ben Judah issued an edict (Herem
de-Rabbenu Gershom) which was considered authoritative among Ashkenazi
Jews. This edict substantially prohibited plural marriage. One
exception was allowed: A man could marry more than one wife if he
obtained the special permission of 100 rabbis in 3 countries.
Originally, Gershom’s ban was limited in time to the year 1260,
however it has continued to be accepted by Jews of Europe and the
Western World to this day. Rabbi Gershom’s edict was followed less in
sephardic countries: cases of polygamy were found in Spain as late as
the 14th cent. That such cases were not rare may be inferred from the
fact that in the Spanish communities the Ketubah, the document marking
the betrothal, exacted that the man was not to take a second wife. The
Islamic influence on the Jews in Spain was more or less pronounced
until the expulsion at the end of the 15th cent.

 

[Alexius]

There was a rabbinic ban on polygamy in the 1000s C.E. Most Jews followed the ban although some sephardic Jews did not. But even among Jews that did not acknowledge the ban, polygamy was never very popular.

faqs.org/faqs/judaism/FAQ/04-Observance/section-55.html :
About the year 1000, Rabbi Gershom ben Judah issued an edict (Herem
de-Rabbenu Gershom) which was considered authoritative among Ashkenazi
Jews. This edict substantially prohibited plural marriage. One
exception was allowed: A man could marry more than one wife if he
obtained the special permission of 100 rabbis in 3 countries.
Originally, Gershom’s ban was limited in time to the year 1260,
however it has continued to be accepted by Jews of Europe and the
Western World to this day. Rabbi Gershom’s edict was followed less in
sephardic countries: cases of polygamy were found in Spain as late as
the 14th cent. That such cases were not rare may be inferred from the
fact that in the Spanish communities the Ketubah, the document marking
the betrothal, exacted that the man was not to take a second wife. The
Islamic influence on the Jews in Spain was more or less pronounced
until the expulsion at the end of the 15th cent.

So why was plural marriage banned? Was it because of this Western influence?

Thanks!

 

[inJESUS]

So why was plural marriage banned? Was it because of this Western influence?

Thanks!

yes Valke this was the second part of my question: why?
thx.

 

[PaulDupre]

I’m pretty sure there are Catholic men in sub-Saharan Africa with multiple wives…What does the Catholic Church say?

Prayers and petitions,
Alexius

I’m pretty sure there are Orthodox men in Africa who impregnate their own daughters…What does the Orthodox Church say?

No, Alexius, you are not cool.

Paul

 

[PaulDupre]

I’m pretty sure there are Catholic men in sub-Saharan Africa with multiple wives…What does the Catholic Church say?

Prayers and petitions,
Alexius

From the Catechism of the Catholic Church:

Part 2, Section 2, Chapter 3, Article 7, SubSection 5, Heading 1

1645 “The unity of marriage, distinctly recognized by our Lord, is made clear in the equal personal dignity which must be accorded to man and wife in mutual and unreserved affection.” Polygamy is contrary to conjugal love which is undivided and exclusive.

Part 2, Section 2, Chapter 3, Article 7, SubSection 6

1664 Unity, indissolubility, and openness to fertility are essential to marriage. Polygamy is incompatible with the unity of marriage; divorce separates what God has joined together; the refusal of fertility turns married life away from its “supreme gift,” the child (GS 50 § 1).

Part 3, Section 2, Chapter 2, Article 6, SubSection 4, Heading 3

2387 The predicament of a man who, desiring to convert to the Gospel, is obliged to repudiate one or more wives with whom he has shared years of conjugal life, is understandable. However polygamy is not in accord with the moral law." [Conjugal] communion is radically contradicted by polygamy; this, in fact, directly negates the plan of God which was revealed from the beginning, because it is contrary to the equal personal dignity of men and women who in matrimony give themselves with a love that is total and therefore unique and exclusive." The Christian who has previously lived in polygamy has a grave duty in justice to honor the obligations contracted in regard to his former wives and his children.

Part 3, Section 2, Chapter 2, Article 6, SubSection 4, Heading 3

2400 Adultery, divorce, polygamy, and free union are grave offenses against the dignity of marriage.

As if you didn’t know.

Paul

 

[Alexius]

From the Catechism of the Catholic Church:

As if you didn’t know.

Paul

I was more curious about the cultural aspect of Africa. I figured the Catholic Church condemned it. The only reason I ask is that I saw a Law and Order episode about some Africans who had multiple wives and were Catholic. I thought about it and have come to the conclusion that if there are any marriages of African men to more than one woman, then they are tribal marriages and not Catholic, though their religious conviction may be Catholic…Thanks!

Prayers and petitions,
Alexius

 

[puzzleannie]

I was more curious about the cultural aspect of Africa. I figured the Catholic Church condemned it. The only reason I ask is that I saw a Law and Order episode about some Africans who had multiple wives and were Catholic. I thought about it and have come to the conclusion that if there are any marriages of African men to more than one woman, then they are tribal marriages and not Catholic, though their religious conviction may be Catholic…Thanks!

Prayers and petitions,
Alexius

what I understand from African priests seving here, and other priests who have been missionaries in Africa (it came up in RCIA seminars) is that when the man converts, he is recognized as validly married to the first wife, but retains his obligations to support subsequent wives and their children, so they may still be living and working in the family compound, but he has conjugal relations only with the first wife. That is because often the society frowns on the younger “wives” seeking other husbands. and unless they are accepted back by their fathers or brothers, they would have no place to go.

 

[Valke2]

So why was plural marriage banned? Was it because of this Western influence?

Thanks!

I believe it was because polygamous marriages were generally bad for women. Even when it was allowed, it was grounds for divorce for the first wife, if she wanted. At the same council, it was held that a husband could not divorce his wife without her consent. It was a matter of social evolution, more than theological dogma.

There are generally three reasons traditioanlly given to support the ban:

1. Concern tha the husband would not be able to provide for all his wives.
2. Avoiding fighting between wives.
3. To conform to Christian practices in their host countries, so as not to incur attacks against Jews who practiced polygamy.

The third reason is not generally accepted by halakic authorties, who stress the first two.

 

[PaulDupre]

I was more curious about the cultural aspect of Africa. I figured the Catholic Church condemned it. The only reason I ask is that I saw a Law and Order episode about some Africans who had multiple wives and were Catholic. I thought about it and have come to the conclusion that if there are any marriages of African men to more than one woman, then they are tribal marriages and not Catholic, though their religious conviction may be Catholic…Thanks!

Prayers and petitions,
Alexius

That is covered by CCC section 2387 cited above. As PuzzleAnnie pointed out, even though the CC does not recognize the marriages subsequent to the 1st (the real) marriage, it does recognize the contractual/moral obligations that the man has taken on. He must support his children and provide everything he agreed to provide for the women.

It is really a testament to the faith of the convert men, that they agree to retain all the liabilities of plural marriage but none of the “benefits”.

Paul

 

[Alexius]

what I understand from African priests seving here, and other priests who have been missionaries in Africa (it came up in RCIA seminars) is that when the man converts, he is recognized as validly married to the first wife, but retains his obligations to support subsequent wives and their children, so they may still be living and working in the family compound, but he has conjugal relations only with the first wife. That is because often the society frowns on the younger “wives” seeking other husbands. and unless they are accepted back by their fathers or brothers, they would have no place to go.

Interesting, thank you!

I believe it was because polygamous marriages were generally bad for women. Even when it was allowed, it was grounds for divorce for the first wife, if she wanted. At the same council, it was held that a husband could not divorce his wife without her consent. It was a matter of social evolution, more than theological dogma.

There are generally three reasons traditioanlly given to support the ban:

1. Concern tha the husband would not be able to provide for all his wives.
2. Avoiding fighting between wives.
3. To conform to Christian practices in their host countries, so as not to incur attacks against Jews who practiced polygamy.

The third reason is not generally accepted by halakic authorties, who stress the first two.

I understand this. So, it is generally for the welfare of the wife vs. theological…

That is covered by CCC section 2387 cited above. As PuzzleAnnie pointed out, even though the CC does not recognize the marriages subsequent to the 1st (the real) marriage, it does recognize the contractual/moral obligations that the man has taken on. He must support his children and provide everything he agreed to provide for the women.

It is really a testament to the faith of the convert men, that they agree to retain all the liabilities of plural marriage but none of the “benefits”.

Paul

I see that now. What of the OT Patriarches and Kings who had many wives? Was this not ordained by God?

 

[PaulDupre]

What of the OT Patriarches and Kings who had many wives? Was this not ordained by God?

We Catholics believe that God temporarily tolerated (not ordained) several deeply ingrained aspects of the ancient patriarchal societies, so as to gently and gradually lead his people to Christ.

Jesus taught this principle beautifully in Matt 19:7-9

They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?

He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

God love you,
Paul