The Catholic Church historically decided what books would be included in the Bible. We compiled the Bible. The very first Bible was compiled in Latin by St.Jerome. It was called the vulgate. The reason other Christians have the Bible is because Catholics wrote it. The reason skeptics have the Bible is also because of Catholics.
Well, the New Testament, not the whole shebang. Yes, I am aware of the compilation process; a collection of fallible humans took votes, and those books which received a majority vote, got included, the rest discarded. But that is not relevant at all. Your reasoning is still circular. The CC asserts that the Bible is the word of God - while they were the ones who cherry-picked what they liked and discarded what they did not like. Then they use the Bible to support what they say… a dog chasing its tail.
- You find the Bible repugnant.
- Therefore the Bible is false.
Oh, come on. I hope you are not
that dumb. I said nothing of that kind. Why don’t you answer to what I actually said?
What criteria? You have still omitted a definition. Lol does that make you “evil” via equivocation of “guilt by omission” and “evil”? haha What is your definition of evil? Please type it out so I can read it.
Very well. Here comes:
“An action is evil if it intentionally causes harm to a being with a nervous system, or allows - through inaction - intentional harm to come to a being with nervous system, and if this harm cannot be justified.” I am sure you will now ask about justification.
An act of causing (or allowing) harm can only be justified, if the harm itself leads to some greater good, which (a) cannot be achieved without the aforementioned harm (the harm is logically necessary for the good), and (b) the greater good outweighs the effect of the harm, and (c) the harm caused (or allowed) is kept at a minimum, that is the causation of the harm stops at the precise moment when the greater good will be realized, and not a second longer.
At this point there usually comes another “objection”. People question, on what grounds dare we, skeptics, declare that the harm is unjustified, since we do not have acess to the whole picture. Indeed, we do not, we must go by the available evidence. That is the process we use in the courts, too. We use the duck principle: “if it looks like a duck, walks like a duck, quacks like a duck, tastes like a duck, then it is most propably a duck”.
And finally comes the last (and worst) “argument” (shouting down the opposition): “how
dare you miserable, filthy, disgusting sinners pass judgment over God?”. This is called special pleading and shouting when all the actual arguments are refuted. God gets no preferential treatment. If God’s actions cannot be justified, then we must go by the available evidence, bring forth and our verdict accordingly.
When this is applied to God, there can be no justification for allowing genocide. God is simply angry at some tribes, who worshipped other, false god (how I love the term: “false god”) and acts out of revenge - precisely as Isiah implies. There are many other examples in the OT.
You’re the one making the claim. The burden of proving:
A = torturing someone to death
B = allowing someone to be crushed to death
C = Evil
D = “guilt” by commission
E = “guilt” by omission
If A = D = C then B = E = C.
And again, I said nothing of the kind. You keep misrepresenting my words - and I am getting tired of your non-sequiturs. They are both evil, because they conform to the definition of evil I presented. There is no “IF…, THEN…” construct here at all.